- #1

a1call

- 90

- 5

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bonse's_inequality

It seems to me that the inequality can be true for higher powers (if not any given higher power), for an appropriately higher (lower) bound for "n".

Any thoughts, proofs, counter proofs your insights are appreciated.

In particular, I am interested in estimates (or preferably lower bound) for m for:

##(p-1)# < p^m##

where p is any prime number.

Thank you in advance.