Bounded Set with Two Limit Points

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a bounded set that has exactly two limit points. Participants explore various constructions and clarify their interpretations of set notation and limit points, engaging in a conceptual examination of the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes the set $A_n = [0,\frac{1}{n}) \cup(2-\frac{1}{n},2]$ and suggests that as $n$ increases, the limit points converge to 0 and 2.
  • Another participant challenges this by stating that the set $A_1 = [0,1)$ has infinitely many limit points, implying that the original proposal does not meet the criteria.
  • A subsequent reply seeks clarification on the misunderstanding, emphasizing that the initial claim about $[0,1)$ was not meant to imply it had only two limit points.
  • Another participant suggests a different construction using set notation, proposing $A_n = \left\{ {0,\frac{1}{n}} \right\} \cup \left\{ {2 - \frac{1}{n},2} \right\}$, arguing that this leads to a bounded infinite set with exactly two limit points.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach consensus on the original proposal's validity, and multiple competing views regarding the construction of a suitable set remain. The discussion reflects differing interpretations of limit points and set notation.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations in the clarity of set notation versus interval notation, which may contribute to misunderstandings about the nature of the proposed sets and their limit points.

OhMyMarkov
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Hello everyone!

I'm asked to find a set that is bounded and that has exactly two limit points, now this is how I am thinking.

Consider the set $A_n = [0,\frac{1}{n}) \cup(2-\frac{1}{n},2]$, if $A_1 = [0,1)\cup(1,2]$, $A_2=[0,1/2)\cup (3/2,2]$. If I let $n$ grow indefinitely, I will have only two limit points, 0 and 2, right?

Any help is appreciated! :cool:
 
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OhMyMarkov said:
I'm asked to find a set that is bounded and that has exactly two limit points, now this is how I am thinking.
Consider the set $A_n = [0,\frac{1}{n}) \cup(2-\frac{1}{n},2]$, if $A_1 = [0,1)\cup(1,2]$, $A_2=[0,1/2)\cup (3/2,2]$. If I let $n$ grow indefinitely, I will have only two limit points, 0 and 2, right?
No the set $A_1 = \left[ {0,1} \right)$ alone has infinitely many limit points.

$a_n = \left\{ {\begin{array}{rl} {1/n,} & n\text{ is odd} \\ {1 - 1/n,} & n\text{ is even} \\\end{array}} \right.$
 
Hi Plato,

Thanks for your reply. I didn't quite understand. I realize [0,1) has infinitely many limit points, I didn't say otherwise. Can you please explain.
 
OhMyMarkov said:
Thanks for your reply. I didn't quite understand. I realize [0,1) has infinitely many limit points, I didn't say otherwise. Can you please explain.
Perhaps the problem here is your using interval notation when you mean set notation.
Maybe you meant let $A_n = \left\{ {0,\frac{1}{n}} \right\} \cup \left\{ {2 - \frac{1}{n},2} \right\}$ then let $A = \bigcup\limits_n {A_n } $.
Now $A$ is a bounded infinite set having exactly two limit points.
 

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