Calculating Electrostatic Pressure from Metal Sphere

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    Electrostatic Pressure
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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating electrostatic pressure from a charged metal sphere, specifically addressing the integration limits for the angle theta in spherical coordinates. The correct integration range for theta is [0, π/2] to avoid double counting points on the sphere, as explained in Griffiths' textbook. The participants confirm that the net force exerted by the sphere on itself is zero, aligning with Newton's third law. The mathematical expression for electrostatic pressure is derived using the formula f = σE = (q/4πR²)(q/4πε₀r²)er.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of electrostatics and Coulomb's law
  • Familiarity with spherical coordinates and integration techniques
  • Knowledge of Griffiths' "Introduction to Electrodynamics" concepts
  • Basic principles of Newton's laws of motion
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of electrostatic pressure in Griffiths' "Introduction to Electrodynamics"
  • Learn about spherical coordinate integration techniques in advanced calculus
  • Explore Newton's laws of motion and their implications in electrostatics
  • Review Jackson's "Classical Electrodynamics" for deeper insights into electrostatic forces
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Students and professionals in physics, particularly those studying electrodynamics, as well as educators looking to clarify concepts related to electrostatic pressure and integration in spherical coordinates.

gulsen
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I have a metal sphere with the net charge q. And I'm trying to calculate the force that southern hemisphere exerts to northern hemisphere... and I get 0.

now, the electrostatic "pressure" is
\mathbf f = \sigma \mathbf E = (q/4\pi R^2) (q/4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2) \mathbf {e_r}

due to the symmetry, the force will point at z direction, so integrating only the z component of "pressure" over the northern hemisphere should do it, right?

\int f_z dA = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \int_0^{2\pi} (q/4\pi R^2) (q/4\pi \epsilon_0 R^2) Rcos(\theta) R^2 sin(\theta) d\phi d\theta = 0?

I found out that this's a question from Griffiths', and the answer manual says the \theta integral should be within [0,\pi/2], not [-\pi/2, \pi/2].

Why is that?
 
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It is the same reason that an integral over all space will have phi from 0 to 2 pi and theta from 0 to pi.

It has to do with not double calculating a section of the sphere, not passing over it twice.
 
You're only integrating over the top half of of the sphere, not the whole thing, so your theta integration should be truncated to only that side.

What you actually found is that the net force on the entire sphere that it exerts on itself is zero, which is a nice statement of Newton's third law.
 
gulsen said:
I found out that this's a question from Griffiths', and the answer manual says the \theta integral should be within [0,\pi/2], not [-\pi/2, \pi/2].

Why is that?
Just to restate what Crosson and StatMechGuy already explained: Realize that your integral over \phi goes from 0 to 2 \pi, so counting negative values of \theta counts those points twice. The point (\theta, \phi) = (\theta, 0) is the same point as (\theta, \phi) = (-\theta, \pi).
 
In classical electrodymamics BY jackson this is explained... clearly
 

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