Calculating Fourier Coefficients for $f(\theta) = \theta^2$ on $[-\pi, \pi]$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on calculating the Fourier coefficients for the function \( f(\theta) = \theta^2 \) over the interval \([- \pi, \pi]\). Participants explore the derivation of the coefficients, particularly \( a_0 \) and \( a_n \), and the implications of their calculations on the resulting Fourier series representation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants calculate \( a_0 \) and \( a_n \) for \( f(\theta) = \theta^2 \) and express concerns about the coefficients being zero due to the presence of only sine terms.
  • One participant revises their calculation of \( a_n \) and proposes a piecewise expression for the coefficients based on the parity of \( n \).
  • Another participant challenges the assertion that only sine terms are present, suggesting that cosine terms must also be considered.
  • There is a suggestion that the final Fourier series representation includes a correction regarding the coefficient of the cosine terms, indicating a potential oversight in the integration process.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the presence of sine and cosine terms in the Fourier series, with some asserting that all coefficients are zero while others argue for the inclusion of cosine terms. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the final form of the Fourier series and the correctness of the coefficients.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully resolved the implications of their calculations, particularly concerning the integration by parts and the resulting coefficients. There are also unresolved questions about the assumptions made in the derivation of the Fourier coefficients.

Dustinsfl
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We have $f(\theta) = \theta^2$ for $-\pi < \theta\leq \pi$.

$$
a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\theta^2 d\theta = \frac{2\pi^2}{3}
$$

$$
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\left[\left.\frac{\theta^2}{n}\sin n\theta\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}-\frac{1}{n}\left[\left.\frac{-\theta}{n}\cos n\theta\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}+\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos n\theta d\theta\right]\right] = \frac{2}{n\pi}\left[\pi^2\sin n\pi - \frac{1}{n}\sin n\pi\right]
$$

However, since I have only sine, all the coefficients would be zero. Is that correct?
 
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dwsmith said:
We have $f(\theta) = \theta^2$ for $-\pi < \theta\leq \pi$.

$$
a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\theta^2 d\theta = \frac{2\pi^2}{3}
$$

$$
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\left[\left.\frac{\theta^2}{n}\sin n\theta\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}-\frac{1}{n}\left[\left.\frac{-\theta}{n}\cos n\theta\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}+\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos n\theta d\theta\right]\right] = \frac{2}{n\pi}\left[\pi^2\sin n\pi - \frac{1}{n}\sin n\pi\right]
$$

However, since I have only sine, all the coefficients would be zero. Is that correct?

I should have this instead
$$\frac{1}{\pi}\left[\frac{2\pi^2}{n}\sin n\pi - \frac{1}{n}\left[\frac{-2\pi}{n}\cos n\pi - \frac{2}{n}\sin n\pi\right]\right]= \frac{2}{n^2}(-1)^n =
\begin{cases}
\frac{2}{n^2} & \text{if n even}\\
\frac{-2}{n^2} & \text{if n odd}
\end{cases}
$$

Correct?
 
dwsmith said:
We have $f(\theta) = \theta^2$ for $-\pi < \theta\leq \pi$.

$$
a_0 = \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\theta^2 d\theta = \frac{2\pi^2}{3}
$$

$$
a_n = \frac{1}{\pi}\left[\left.\frac{\theta^2}{n}\sin n\theta\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}-\frac{1}{n}\left[\left.\frac{-\theta}{n}\color{red}{\cos n\theta}\right|_{-\pi}^{\pi}+\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos n\theta d\theta\right]\right] = \frac{2}{n\pi}\left[\pi^2\sin n\pi - \frac{1}{n}\sin n\pi\right]
$$

However, since I have only sine, all the coefficients would be zero. Is that correct?
You don't "have only sine"!
 
Opalg said:
You don't "have only sine"!

I made the correction is post 2.
Is this the solution?
$$
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + 2\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\left[\frac{(-1)^n}{n}\cos n\theta\right].
$$
 
dwsmith said:
I made the correction is post 2. (I didn't see that when making my previous post.)
Is this the solution?
$$
\frac{\pi^2}{3} + 2\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\left[\frac{(-1)^n}{n}\cos n\theta\right].
$$
Correct except that I think that the 2 should be a 4. It looks as though you left out the 2 in the derivative of $\theta^2$, when doing the integration by parts.
 

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