Calculating Normalization Factor for 1s Atomic Orbital of H

  • Thread starter Thread starter geronimo123
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Normalization
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the normalization factor for the 1s atomic orbital of hydrogen, specifically focusing on the wavefunction \(\psi(r) = N \exp(-r / a_o)\). Participants are tasked with demonstrating that the normalization factor is \(1/(\Pi a_o^3)^{1/2}\) and are provided with relevant integration expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the initial steps for normalizing the wavefunction, with emphasis on squaring the wavefunction and setting up the integral for normalization. There are questions about the integration process and how to apply given formulas effectively.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the integration, suggesting specific techniques for handling the integrals involved. There is acknowledgment of the challenges faced with integration, and some participants express uncertainty about their progress, while others offer encouragement and hints.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention that the problem is set within the context of physical chemistry night classes, indicating a potential lack of recent experience with integration techniques. There is also a reference to specific integration limits and variables that may require clarification.

geronimo123
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
Hi all! I hope somebody is able to help me on my way with this question.

I have been asked to show that the Normalization factor for the 1s atomic orbital of H is [tex]1/(\Pi a_o^3)^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]. The wavefunction is [tex]\psi(r) = N exp(-r / a_o)[/tex]

I'm given [tex]dt = r^2 sin \Theta[/tex] and [tex]dr d\Theta d\Phi[/tex] and [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^n e^{ax} dx=n!/a^n+1[/tex]

I must admit I'm clueless which direction to go. It was mentioned to me, that squaring the wavefunction is the first step, but I cannot arrive at the given constant. Am I starting off on the wrong foot?

Thanks for any input, in advance.

geronimo
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
geronimo123 said:
Hi all! I hope somebody is able to help me on my way with this question.

I have been asked to show that the Normalization factor for the 1s atomic orbital of H is [tex]1/(\xi a_o^3)^\frac{1}{2}[/tex]. The wavefunction is [tex]\psi(r) = N exp(-r / a_o)[/tex]

I'm given [tex]d \Tau = r^2 sin \Theta[tex];[tex]dr d\Theta d\Phi[/tex] and [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}x^n\e^-ax\dx=n!/a^n+1[/tex]<br /> <br /> I must admit I'm clueless which direction to go. It was mentioned to me, that squaring the wavefunction is the first step, but I cannot arrive at the given constant. Am I starting off on the wrong foot?<br /> <br /> Thanks for any input, in advance.<br /> <br /> geronimo[/tex][/tex]
[tex][tex] You have all the pieces in place.<br /> Just impose [itex]\int_0^\infty dr r^2 \int_0^{2 \pi} d\phi \int_0^\pi sin(\theta) d\theta \,\,N^2 e^{-2 r /a_0} =1[/itex] and solve for N.[/tex][/tex]
 
I must admit that my integration is not what it used to be. I'm taking some physical chemistry night classes where this problem was set. How might one initially solve for N?
 
geronimo123 said:
I must admit that my integration is not what it used to be. I'm taking some physical chemistry night classes where this problem was set. How might one initially solve for N?

The [tex]\phi[/tex] integral just adds a factor of [tex]2\pi[/tex], change variables in the [tex]\theta[/tex] integral to [tex]x=\cos(\theta)[/tex] and then it becomes a lot nicer.

Good luck.
Eoin Kerrane.
 
geronimo123 said:
I must admit that my integration is not what it used to be. I'm taking some physical chemistry night classes where this problem was set. How might one initially solve for N?
the theta integral gives 2. The phi integral gives 2 pi. For the r integral, you have a formula. just compare the r integral to the formual you have, term by term (what is n? etc) and you will have the result of the r integration. Then you have N^2 times an expression = 1 and you solve for N
 
Super guys, I have managed it finally thanks to your help. Best regards
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K