DaveC426913 said:
It seems to be a poorly-defined question. How long does a sequence of digits have to be to qualify as a repeating sequence?
Does 0.232357... count?
Does 0.22357... count?
Does 0.11111... count?
(Not that these are decimal expansions, (except the last one), but suppose they were?)
@Orodruin already cleared this up and I acknowledged my vague language and the question I was trying to ask.
Does 0.
232357... count?
No, because we are talking about cases where the repetition continues to infinity. In a vague way, I wanted to know if it's possible to find a bijective map that inverts the sequence of numbers ##1,2,3,...## about the mean of the set ##\{1,2,3,...\}## which
@PeroK implied can't exist since there is no halfway to infinity. Hypothetically, if in another mathematical universe there is such a map, it would be possible to have an infinite decimal expansion of a rational number that has two adjacent instances of just the same digits in the same order. As
@Orodruin helped me understand this is an impossible scenario that would lead to contradictions, and the question came from my poor understanding of these numbers. The point is I'm asking questions to help improve my understanding of the math system.
Does 0.
22357... count?
No.
Does 0.
11111... count?
Yes ##0.\bar{1}## counts. We know that a segment of ##1##s of length ##n## repeats infinitely often in that expansion, with each segment having the same digits in the same order. We know that such a segment of ##1##s can't repeat a finite number of times, because the decimal place that is ##\frac{1}{2}## of the way to infinity (or is any nonzero fraction ##\frac{1}{n}## of the way to infinity) isn't definable.