Can Quantum Mechanics be studied without the Copenhagen interpretation

  • #51
Jazzdude said:
that it does so without requiring the measurement postulate.
Be careful with such statements. My criticizing you in the MWI thread was absolutely valid in the given context. You made a statement about MWI that was not correct because it required the measurement postulate, which is not part of the Everett formalism.
Jazz

rigth, likewise in bohm-pilot wave, van fraassen-modal model, everett-relative state and of course de witt-many worlds approach.

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  • #52
Jazzdude said:
Of course there are claims like that in the literature. Many publications claim that decoherence solves the measurement problem, and that it does so without requiring the measurement postulate.

Yes you occasionally see them, and the few threads discussing them I have seen point out they are wrong - I was even among those.

But the majority of the literature I have come across is exactly like the link I posted on it, like Vanhees71 posted, and like Schlosshauer espouses in Decoherence and the Quantum-to-Classical Transition which is my goto book.

Thanks
Bill
 
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