Can the choice of codomain affect the surjectivity of a function?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around whether the choice of codomain can influence the surjectivity of a function. Participants explore this concept through examples and definitions, focusing on the implications of varying the codomain in relation to specific functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that the codomain affects surjectivity, using the example of the function f(x) = exp(x) which is not surjective when defined as f: R --> R, but becomes bijective when defined as f: R --> (0, inf).
  • Another participant agrees, stating that the codomain essentially determines whether a function is surjective.
  • A later reply qualifies this by explaining that defining the codomain to be the same as the range of the function ensures surjectivity, and that one can restrict the codomain to achieve this.
  • Another participant points out that there is no rule preventing the specification of the codomain based on the mapping rule, as long as the range is a subset of the codomain, providing examples of different codomain specifications for the function f(x) = sin(x).

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the choice of codomain affects surjectivity, but there is some contention regarding the rules governing codomain specification and its relationship to the function's range.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the definitions of codomain and range are present, and the discussion does not resolve the nuances of how these definitions interact with surjectivity.

dijkarte
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Given a function f(x) f:A --> B, can the choice of codomain affect whether or not the function is surjective? For instance, f(x) = exp(x), f:R --> R is an injection but not surjection. However, assuming we can vary the co-domain, and let's make it f: R --> (0, inf), f(x) is now bijection. Is this correct?
 
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Yes. The codomain pretty much determines by itself whether or not the function is surjective.
 
Got it. Thanks.
 
dijkarte said:
Got it. Thanks.

I should probably qualify my previous post. The codomain determines surjectivity in the sense that if you define the codomain to be the same as the range of the function, then your function becomes surjective. In fact, given any function, you can restrict the codomain in such a way as to make the function surjective (you can also restrict the domain in such a way to make it injective). A different function with the same codomain obviously may not be surjective.
 
But there's no rule which restricts the specification of the codomain based on the mapping rule itself as long as the range is a subset of the codomain. For instance, f(x) = sin(x) can be specified as:

f: R --> R
f: R --> [-2, 2)
f: R --> [-1, 1]

but not as f: R --> [0, 4]
 

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