Can the Dominated Convergence Theorem Apply to f_n(x) on [0,1]?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Dominated Convergence Theorem to the function $$f_{n}(x)=\frac{n^{1.5}x}{1+n^{2}x^2}$$ defined on the interval [0,1]. Participants explore the convergence of the function and the search for an appropriate dominating function to evaluate the limit of the integral of $$f_n$$ over the specified interval.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that $$f_n$$ converges to 0 and seeks a dominating function to show that the integral is zero.
  • Another participant agrees with the approach but argues that the proposed dominating function $$g(x) = x^{-2}$$ is not integrable over [0,1], citing that the improper integral diverges.
  • A later reply proposes a different dominating function, $$g(x) = x^{-1/2}$$, asserting that it is a better choice and provides reasoning to support this claim.
  • There is a technical note regarding LaTeX code issues, indicating a problem with displaying mathematical expressions.
  • One participant inquires about an unrelated mathematical concept referred to as the epsilon/2^n or 1/2^n 'trick', but no one provides an answer to this question.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the need for a dominating function but disagree on the suitability of the initially proposed function $$g(x) = x^{-2}$$. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the final choice of a dominating function.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of integrability in the context of the Dominated Convergence Theorem and the challenges in finding an appropriate dominating function. There are unresolved issues related to the integrability of the suggested functions.

Fermat1
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Define $$f_{n}(x)=\frac{n^{1.5}x}{1+n^{2}x^2}$$ for x in [0,1]. Use Dominated convergence theorem to find the limit of the integral of f_n over [0,1].

I find that f_n converges to 0 so if I can find domination function I have shown integral is zero. Correct? I find f_n is dominated by function g where g(x)=x^-2 when x is not zero and g(0)=0. Is such a function integrable?

Thanks
 
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Re: dominated convergence theorem

Just noticed the code isn't displaying, sorry about that. I can't see what's wrong though.
 
Re: dominated convergence theorem

Fermat said:
Define $$f_{n}(x)=\frac{n^{1.5}x}{1+n^{2}x^2}$$ for x in [0,1]. Use Dominated convergence theorem to find the limit of the integral of f_n over [0,1].

I find that f_n converges to 0 so if I can find domination function I have shown integral is zero. Correct? I find f_n is dominated by function g where g(x)=x^-2 when x is not zero and g(0)=0. Is such a function integrable?
That is the right approach, but the function $g(x) = x^{-2}$ will not do the job. It certainly dominates the functions $f_n$ but it is not integrable over the interval $[0,1].$ If you were using the Riemann integral, you would say that the improper integral $$\int_0^1 g(x)\,dx$$ diverges because $$\int_{\varepsilon}^1x^{-2}dx = 1- \varepsilon^{-1}$$, which goes to $\infty$ as $\varepsilon\searrow0.$ The same calculation shows that $g(x)$ is not Lebesgue integrable either.

So you need to find a "better" dominating function, and I think that you should look at $g(x) = x^{-1/2}$ (for $x\ne0$, with $g(0)=0$). To see that this function dominates $f_n$, notice that $$\frac{n^{1.5}x}{1+n^{2}x^2} \leqslant \frac1{\sqrt x}\:\Leftrightarrow\: n^{1.5}x^{1.5} \leqslant 1+n^2x^2.$$ Put $y = \sqrt{nx}$ and use elementary calculus to show that $y^3 \leqslant 1+y^4$ for all positive $y.$

[The problem with the LaTeX code was that there was an extra } in it. The LaTeX compiler gets completely thrown by non-matching braces.]
 
Re: dominated convergence theorem

Opalg said:
That is the right approach, but the function $g(x) = x^{-2}$ will not do the job. It certainly dominates the functions $f_n$ but it is not integrable over the interval $[0,1].$ If you were using the Riemann integral, you would say that the improper integral $$\int_0^1 g(x)\,dx$$ diverges because $$\int_{\varepsilon}^1x^{-2}dx = 1- \varepsilon^{-1}$$, which goes to $\infty$ as $\varepsilon\searrow0.$ The same calculation shows that $g(x)$ is not Lebesgue integrable either.

So you need to find a "better" dominating function, and I think that you should look at $g(x) = x^{-1/2}$ (for $x\ne0$, with $g(0)=0$). To see that this function dominates $f_n$, notice that $$\frac{n^{1.5}x}{1+n^{2}x^2} \leqslant \frac1{\sqrt x}\:\Leftrightarrow\: n^{1.5}x^{1.5} \leqslant 1+n^2x^2.$$ Put $y = \sqrt{nx}$ and use elementary calculus to show that $y^3 \leqslant 1+y^4$ for all positive $y.$

[The problem with the LaTeX code was that there was an extra } in it. The LaTeX compiler gets completely thrown by non-matching braces.]

Thanks Opalg. On a separate note can you tell me what the epsilon/2^n or 1/2^n 'trick' is please?
 
Re: dominated convergence theorem

Fermat said:
Thanks Opalg. On a separate note can you tell me what the epsilon/2^n or 1/2^n 'trick' is please?
No, I don't know of any trick with those names. Maybe someone else here does?
 

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