Can we prove that (m+1)/(n+1) > m/n if n>m>0 using synthetic proof?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that if n > m > 0, then (m+1)/(n+1) > m/n using synthetic proof. Participants demonstrate the proof by manipulating the inequality and showing that both the numerator and denominator remain positive. The key steps include rewriting the inequality as (n(m+1) - m(n+1)) > 0 and confirming that this holds true under the given conditions. The conclusion emphasizes the effectiveness of working backward in proofs to establish the desired result.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic algebraic manipulation
  • Familiarity with inequalities and their properties
  • Knowledge of synthetic proof techniques
  • Concept of positive real numbers
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  • Study synthetic proof methods in mathematical logic
  • Explore advanced inequality proofs in real analysis
  • Learn about algebraic manipulation techniques for inequalities
  • Investigate the properties of positive real numbers in proofs
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Mathematicians, students studying real analysis, educators teaching proof techniques, and anyone interested in understanding inequalities and synthetic proofs.

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Let m,n be real numbers. Prove that if n>m>0 , then (m+1)/(n+1) > m/n
I'm currently confuse in this one help will be very much needed
 
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How are you confused?
 
Cbarker1 said:
How are you confused?
I understand the question but don't really know how to prove it.
 
Let's start with several examples. What do you choose for n and m which m must be bigger than n and be positive for both (m and n)?
 

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okay m=1 , n=2 would make it true.
 
Any other example? Just keep making examples to see a pattern...
 
m=2, n=3
m=3, n =4
m=12, n=69.
 
let us calculate $\frac{m+1}{n+1}- \frac{m}{n}$
= $\frac{n(m+1) - m(n+1)}{m(n+1)}$
= $\frac{n - m}{m(n+1)}$
as n > m >0 so both numerator and denominator positive and hence

$\frac{m+1}{n+1}- \frac{m}{n}> 0$

or $\frac{m+1}{n+1}> \frac{m}{n}$
 
Since m and n are positive numbers, so are n and n+ 1 so you can eliminate the fractions by multiplying both sides by n and n+ 1 without changing the inequality.. That gives you n(m+1)> m(n+1) so that nm+ n> mn+ m. Can you finish?
 
  • #10
What I showed above was that "if $\frac{m+1}{n+1}> \frac{m}{m}$ then n> m. What you want to prove is the other way around- just reverse every step. From n> m, mn+ n> mn+ m.
n(m+1)> m(n+ 1). Dividing both sides by the positive number n and n+ 1, $\frac{m+1}{n+1}> \frac{m}{n}$.

It is often useful to see how to prove something by working backward, from the conclusion to the hypothesis. As long as every step is "reversible", it isn't necessary to actually show the reverse. That is called "synthetic proof".
 

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