Undergrad Can we solve a non-autonomous diffeq via Taylor series?

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A Taylor series solution can be applied to non-autonomous differential equations like y'(t) = f(t)y(t), but it is not always valid. When the function f(t) is not analytic, such as in the case where f(t) = e^{-1/t^2} for t > 0 and 0 for t < 0, the Taylor series may converge to a constant function rather than the actual solution. This illustrates that the series fails to represent the solution accurately when f(t) lacks analyticity. Consequently, the general conclusion is that not all non-autonomous differential equations can be solved using Taylor series methods. Thus, the existence of a Taylor series solution is contingent upon the properties of the function involved.
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I've occasionally seen examples where autonomous ODE are solved via a power series.

I'm wondering: can you also find a Taylor series solution for a non-autonomous case, like ##y'(t) = f(t)y(t)##?
 
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In principle, yes. You end up with<br /> (n+1)a_{n+1} = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{f^{(n-k)}(0)}{(n-k)!}a_k where the right hand side only involves a_k which are already known.
 
pasmith said:
In principle, yes. You end up with<br /> (n+1)a_{n+1} = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{f^{(n-k)}(0)}{(n-k)!}a_k where the right hand side only involves a_k which are already known.
What if

$$
f (t) = \left\{
\begin{matrix}
e^{ -\frac{1}{t^2} } & t > 0 \\
0 & t < 0
\end{matrix}
\right.
$$

Wouldn't all the ##a_n##'s be zero aside from ##a_0##? And the Taylor series solution give ##y(t)= y(0)##?

The general solution to the differential equation ##y'(t) = f(t) y (t)## is

$$
y(t) = y(0) e^{\int_0^t f (t') dt'}
$$

For the example above, the solution would be

$$
y (t) = y(0) e^{\int_0^t e^{ -\frac{1}{t^{'2}} } dt'}
$$

which isn't a constant.
 
Last edited:
That function is not analytic. Its not equal to its Taylor series so you cannot substitute the series for the function.
 
lurflurf said:
That function is not analytic. Its not equal to its Taylor series so you cannot substitute the series for the function.
I was illustrating that when ##f(t)## is not analytic there may not exist a Taylor series solution to the differential equation ##y'(t) = f(t) y(t)##. The OP was asking if we can solve the differential equation via a Taylor series. And the answer is not always.
 
Last edited:
I was using the fact that the Taylor series of the function

$$
f (t) = \left\{
\begin{matrix}
e^{ -\frac{1}{t^2} } & t > 0 \\
0 & t < 0
\end{matrix}
\right.
$$

at the origin converges everywhere to the zero function in order to prove that a Taylor series solution of the differential equation at the origin converges everywhere to the constant function. Meaning that a Taylor series solution fails to solve the differential equation for this choice of ##f(t)##. Meaning that the differential equation cant always be solved via a Taylor series.
 
Last edited:

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