Can You Crack This Number Puzzle?

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SUMMARY

The lowest two-digit number for which the number just below it is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 is 59. This conclusion is reached by applying the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of these numbers. The method involves determining that LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) equals 60, leading to the solution of 60 - 1 = 59. The Chinese Remainder Theorem is also utilized to confirm that 59 satisfies all modular conditions required by the problem.

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  • Understanding of modular arithmetic and congruences
  • Familiarity with the Least Common Multiple (LCM)
  • Knowledge of the Chinese Remainder Theorem
  • Basic problem-solving skills in number theory
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michealsmith
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a number puzzle...

tell me a the lowest number for which
the number just below it is divisible by 2 ,the one below that 3, below that 4 ,and below that 5 ,and below that 6 .
 
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Is it 59 ?
 
damm to quickly solved yep ur right ill tell u the method i used then compare it with urs ..i wan t to know wat urs was as well ..assume has 2 digits ..number ending in 5 has either o or 5 on its end ..but add 3 and it must be divisible by 2 so it must end in 5 , add 2 and it must be divisble by 3 ..so sum of didgits must sum to a multiple of 3 so its 1st digit is either 27or 57 or 87 since subtracting 1 must be divisible by 4 it must be 57 so add 2 and u get ...59
 
michealsmith said:
damm to quickly solved yep ur right ill tell u the method i used then compare it with urs ..i wan t to know wat urs was as well ..assume has 2 digits ..number ending in 5 has either o or 5 on its end ..but add 3 and it must be divisible by 2 so it must end in 5 , add 2 and it must be divisble by 3 ..so sum of didgits must sum to a multiple of 3 so its 1st digit is either 27or 57 or 87 since subtracting 1 must be divisible by 4 it must be 57 so add 2 and u get ...59

I just worked it out in my head just multiplying 6 by progressive integers until I found one where adding 1 was a multiple of 5, adding 2 a multiple of 4 etc..
 
I solved it by taking the LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.Then that number -2 is divisible by 2,, that number -3 is divisible by 3, etc. So the answer is LCM - 1.
 
I like daveb's solution. My solution:

We're looking for a number such that:

x-1 = 0 (mod 2)
x-2 = 0 (mod 3)
...

giving

x = 1 (mod 2)
x = 2 (mod 3)
...
x = 5 (mod 6)

We see that x = 5 (mod 6) makes x = 1 (mod 2) and x = 2 (mod 3) redundant, so we just need to solve:

x = 3 (mod 4)
x = 4 (mod 5)
x = 5 (mod 6)

The Chinese remainder theorem guarantees a unique solution (mod 30) to the last two congruences. It's easy to solve. The second gives x = 4 + 5y. Plugging into the third gives:

4 + 5y = 5 (mod 6)
5y = 1 (mod 6)
y = 5 (mod 6)

So x = 4 + 5(5) = 29 is the unique solution (mod 30). We see that 29 is not congruent to 3 (mod 4), so we add 30, and get 59, which is congruent to 3 (mod 4), so we're done. I'm not sure if daveb's solution proves that LCM - 1 is the least possible solution, but if it does, then it's a nice solution.

EDIT: Actually, yes it does. If x is the solution, then the conditions of the problem require that x+1 is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. This means that LCM | x+1. The smallest possible choices for x+1 is thus, clearly, LCM, so the smallest choice for x is LCM - 1.
 
Last edited:

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