I like daveb's solution. My solution:
We're looking for a number such that:
x-1 = 0 (mod 2)
x-2 = 0 (mod 3)
...
giving
x = 1 (mod 2)
x = 2 (mod 3)
...
x = 5 (mod 6)
We see that x = 5 (mod 6) makes x = 1 (mod 2) and x = 2 (mod 3) redundant, so we just need to solve:
x = 3 (mod 4)
x = 4 (mod 5)
x = 5 (mod 6)
The Chinese remainder theorem guarantees a unique solution (mod 30) to the last two congruences. It's easy to solve. The second gives x = 4 + 5y. Plugging into the third gives:
4 + 5y = 5 (mod 6)
5y = 1 (mod 6)
y = 5 (mod 6)
So x = 4 + 5(5) = 29 is the unique solution (mod 30). We see that 29 is not congruent to 3 (mod 4), so we add 30, and get 59, which is congruent to 3 (mod 4), so we're done. I'm not sure if daveb's solution proves that LCM - 1 is the least possible solution, but if it does, then it's a nice solution.
EDIT: Actually, yes it does. If x is the solution, then the conditions of the problem require that x+1 is divisible by 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. This means that LCM | x+1. The smallest possible choices for x+1 is thus, clearly, LCM, so the smallest choice for x is LCM - 1.