If you have zero experience, then I would recommend teaching yourself or taking a quick course on boolean logic and point-element set theory first. I'll go into (almost excess) detail below to help you out here, but you should be able to get this.
Part (a):
[tex]( \Rightarrow )[/tex]
Let [tex]x \in ( A \cap (B \cup C) ).[/tex]
Then [tex](x \in A) \wedge (x \in B \vee x \in C).[/tex]
Thus, by the distributive law, [tex](x \in A \wedge x \in B) \vee (x \in A \wedge x \in C).[/tex]
Hence, [tex]x \in (A \cap B) \vee x \in (A \cap C).[/tex]
Therefore, [tex]x \in ((A \cap B) \cup (A \cap C)).[/tex]
Note: we are just halfway through the proof. We have proved the statement in the forward direction. Now we need to prove it backwards, i.e., [tex]x \in ((A \cap B) \cup (A \cap C)) \rightarrow x \in ( A \cap (B \cup C) ).[/tex]