MHB Can You Prove the Limit of Integrals Over Vanishing Measure Sets Is Zero?

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The discussion revolves around proving that the limit of integrals over sets of vanishing measure is zero. Specifically, for a positive measure space and a sequence of sets where the measure approaches zero, it is established that the integral of any function in the space converges to zero. The problem is framed within the context of the Problem of the Week (POTW), emphasizing the importance of understanding the behavior of integrals in relation to measure theory. Despite the challenge, no participants provided solutions, highlighting the complexity of the topic. The thread underscores the significance of this concept in mathematical analysis.
Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $(X,\mathcal{M}, \mu)$ be a positive measure space, and let $\{E_n\}$ be a sequence of sets in $\mathcal{M}$ such that $\displaystyle\lim_n \mu(E_n) = 0$. Prove that if $1 \le p \le \infty$, then for all $f\in \mathscr{L}^p(X,\mathcal{M},\mu)$, $\displaystyle\lim_n \int_{E_n} f\, d\mu = 0$.-----

Remember to read the https://mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to https://mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
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No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.

If $q$ is the exponent conjugate to $p$, Hölder's inequality gives $\left\lvert\int_{E_n} f\, d\mu\right\rvert \le \|1_{E_n}\|_{\mathscr{L^q}} \|f\|_{\mathscr{L^p}} = \mu(E_n)^q\, \|f\|_{\mathscr{L^q}} \to 0$ as $n \to \infty$.
 

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