nigelscott Messages 133 Reaction score 4 Thread starter Nov 24, 2015 #1 I read that the canonical momentum for Dirac adjoint field is zero. Why is that?
haushofer Science Advisor Insights Author Messages 3,084 Reaction score 1,608 Nov 24, 2015 #2 What does your calculation give you?
dextercioby Science Advisor Insights Author Messages 13,415 Reaction score 4,218 Nov 24, 2015 #3 You should be using the symmetrized „classical” action:
nigelscott Messages 133 Reaction score 4 Nov 24, 2015 #4 I know that π = iψbarγ0. My confusion concerns the notion of the derivative in the Lagrangian 'acting to the right' for ψ or 'acting to the left' for ψbarγ0 . If I ignore that confusion then I can see that the canonical momentum would be 0.
I know that π = iψbarγ0. My confusion concerns the notion of the derivative in the Lagrangian 'acting to the right' for ψ or 'acting to the left' for ψbarγ0 . If I ignore that confusion then I can see that the canonical momentum would be 0.