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Canonical momentum for Dirac adjoint field

  1. Nov 24, 2015 #1
    I read that the canonical momentum for Dirac adjoint field is zero. Why is that?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 24, 2015 #2

    haushofer

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    What does your calculation give you?
     
  4. Nov 24, 2015 #3

    dextercioby

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    You should be using the symmetrized „classical” action:
    upload_2015-11-25_1-40-38.png
     
  5. Nov 24, 2015 #4
    I know that π = iψbarγ0. My confusion concerns the notion of the derivative in the Lagrangian 'acting to the right' for ψ or 'acting to the left' for ψbarγ0 . If I ignore that confusion then I can see that the canonical momentum would be 0.
     
  6. Nov 24, 2015 #5
    should be 'acting to the left' for ψbar
     
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