I read that the canonical momentum for Dirac adjoint field is zero. Why is that?
What does your calculation give you?
You should be using the symmetrized „classical” action:
I know that π = iψbarγ0. My confusion concerns the notion of the derivative in the Lagrangian 'acting to the right' for ψ or 'acting to the left' for ψbarγ0 . If I ignore that confusion then I can see that the canonical momentum would be 0.
should be 'acting to the left' for ψbar
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