Changing variables in the Schrodinger equation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on transforming the Schrödinger equation for two interacting particles into center of mass coordinates. The original equation is given as i ∂ψ/∂t + (1/2m_x) ∂²ψ/∂x² + (1/2m_y) ∂²ψ/∂y² + V(x-y) = 0, and the goal is to express it in terms of new variables R and r, resulting in i ∂φ/∂t + H(R,r) = 0. The key question posed is whether the relationship ψ(x,y,t) = φ((m_x x + m_y y)/(m_x + m_y), x-y, t) holds true, which hinges on establishing a one-to-one mapping between (x,y) and (R,r).

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  • Understanding of the Schrödinger equation and its applications in quantum mechanics.
  • Familiarity with center of mass coordinates and their significance in physics.
  • Knowledge of Hamiltonian mechanics and its formulation.
  • Basic proficiency in mathematical transformations and variable substitutions.
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  • Study the derivation of the center of mass coordinates in quantum mechanics.
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  • Research one-to-one mappings in mathematical functions and their applications in physics.
  • Examine examples of variable transformations in the context of the Schrödinger equation.
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Physicists, quantum mechanics students, and researchers interested in advanced topics related to the Schrödinger equation and variable transformations in quantum systems.

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Suppose I have a Schrödinger equation for two interacting particles located at x and y; so, something like
[tex] \left( i \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2m_x} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{1}{2m_y} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2} + V(x-y) \right) \psi(x,y,t) = 0.[/tex]
Now, I want to shift to center of mass coordinates R and r and write the Hamiltonian in terms of them. The resulting Schrödinger equation looks something like
[tex] \left( i \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + H(R,r) \right) \varphi(R,r,t) = 0.[/tex]
Question: is it true that
[tex] \psi(x,y,t) = \varphi \left(\frac{m_x x + m_y y}{m_x + m_y},x-y,t\right)?[/tex]
If so, why? I have been trying to prove this but have so far just been going around in circles it seems...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you write ##x## and ##y## in terms of ##R## and ##r##, such that you have a one-to-one mapping between the two? If yes, then there is no difference between expressing a function in terms of ##(x,y)## or of ##(R,r)##.
 

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