mathstime
- 25
- 0
Does \sum_{i=0}^n \binom{n-1+d-i}{d-i} = \binom{n+d}{d}??
The discussion revolves around a combinatorial problem involving the equality of a summation of binomial coefficients and a single binomial coefficient. Participants explore the conditions under which the equality holds, considering different ranges for the summation and proposing various methods of proof, including induction.
Participants generally agree on the need to clarify the limits of the summation and the properties of binomial coefficients. However, multiple competing views remain regarding the correct formulation of the problem and the methods of proof, leading to an unresolved discussion.
There are limitations in the assumptions regarding the ranges of summation and the interpretations of the binomial coefficients, which have not been fully resolved. The discussion also reflects varying levels of understanding among participants regarding the combinatorial arguments presented.
mathstime said:Yes, you are correct. The summation should be from 0 to d.
I have actually altered the problem slightly. I want to show that
\sum_{k=0}^d \binom{n+d-k}{n} = \binom{n+d}{n}??