Show that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds

  • #1
Lambda96
158
59
Homework Statement
Show that the following applies with tasks b and c ##\lim_{n\to\infty} \Bigl( 1 + \frac{z}{n} \Bigr)^n = e^z##
Relevant Equations
Tasks b and c
Hi,

I have problems proving task d

Bildschirmfoto 2023-12-16 um 13.47.11.png

I then started with task c and rewrote it as follows ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N}\Bigl( \frac{z^k}{k!} - \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k} \Bigr)=0 \quad \rightarrow \quad \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}##

I can use the right-hand side of the equation, i.e. ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}## with the help of the binomial theorem rewrite as follows ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}= \lim_{n\to\infty} \Big( 1+ \frac{z}{n} \Bigr)^n ##

Now I just have to show that the left-hand side is ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}=e^z##. Unfortunately, I can't get any further here, I assume that I can use task 1b for this, but unfortunately I don't know how.
 
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  • #2
I suggest writing out
$$
{n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}
$$
and work from there.
 
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  • #3
Thank you Orodruin for your help 👍

I can rewrite ##\binom{n}{k}## as follows ##\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k! (n-k)!}= \prod\limits_{j = 1}^{k} \frac{n+1-j}{j}## Unfortunately, I can't get any further with this either

But I'm also wondering if I'm misinterpreting the term on the left, I thought that the limit has no influence on the sum, but ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}## should be ##\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{k!}##, right?
 
  • #4
Lambda96 said:
Thank you Orodruin for your help 👍

I can rewrite ##\binom{n}{k}## as follows ##\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k! (n-k)!}= \prod\limits_{j = 1}^{k} \frac{n+1-j}{j}## Unfortunately, I can't get any further with this either
The last step here, while correct, is a step in the wrong direction. I suggest inserting into the expression and factorizing out the k! as that is what should appear in the expansion of the exponential.
 
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  • #5
Consider [tex]\begin{split}
\sum_{k=0}^N \left(\frac{z^k}{k!} - \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}\frac{z^k}{n^k}\right) &=
\sum_{k=0}^N \frac{z^k}{k!}\left(1 - \frac{n!}{(n-k)!n^k}\right) \\ &=
\sum_{k=0}^N \frac{z^k}{k!} \left(1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \dots (n-k + 1)}{n^k}\right)
\end{split}[/tex] Note that [itex]N[/itex] is fixed, while [itex]n \to \infty[/itex].
 
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  • #6
Lambda96 said:
But I'm also wondering if I'm misinterpreting the term on the left, I thought that the limit has no influence on the sum, but ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}## should be ##\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{k!}##, right?
No, as @pasmith said, ##N## is fixed at some finite value while ##n\to \infty##. ##N## is not ##n##.
 
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  • #7
Thank you Orodruin and pasmith for your help 👍👍

If I now calculate the limit ##\lim_{n\to\infty}## of ##\sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)##, the result is:

$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)= \sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - 1 \biggr)=0$$

Unfortunately, I don't know now how to solve task d, i.e. ##\lim_{n\to\infty} \biggl( 1 + \frac{z}{n} \biggr)^n =e^z ## with the expression from task b and c
 

1. How do you prove that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds?

To prove that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds, we can use the definition of the exponential function e^z as the limit of (1+z/n)^n as n approaches infinity. By expanding the expression (1+z/n)^n using the binomial theorem and taking the limit as n approaches infinity, we can show that the limit equals e^z.

2. Why is it important to show that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds?

Showing that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds is important because it demonstrates the connection between the exponential function e^z and the limit of a sequence. This result is fundamental in calculus and is used in various mathematical proofs and applications.

3. Can you provide a step-by-step proof for the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z?

Yes, a step-by-step proof for the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z involves expanding the expression (1+z/n)^n using the binomial theorem, simplifying the terms, and taking the limit as n approaches infinity. This process allows us to establish the equality between the limit and the exponential function e^z.

4. What are the assumptions made when proving the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z?

When proving the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z, the assumptions typically include the convergence of the sequence (1+z/n)^n as n approaches infinity, the properties of the exponential function e^z, and the validity of the binomial theorem for expanding the expression.

5. How does the result (1+z/n)^n=e^z relate to other mathematical concepts?

The result (1+z/n)^n=e^z is related to concepts such as limits, sequences, exponential functions, and the binomial theorem. It showcases the interplay between these mathematical ideas and highlights the elegance of mathematical relationships that exist within calculus and analysis.

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