Communitative ring, map R / ( I /\ J) -> R/I x R/J

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of a map from the quotient of a commutative ring R by the intersection of two ideals I and J to the product of the quotients of R by each ideal. Participants explore the well-defined nature, injectivity, and surjectivity of this map, as well as its relation to the Chinese Remainder Theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant defines the map φ: R/(I ∩ J) → (R/I) × (R/J) and discusses its well-defined nature, injectivity, and conditions for surjectivity.
  • Another participant provides a proof for the surjectivity of φ under the condition that I + J = R, suggesting that this is related to the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
  • A later reply reiterates the connection to the Chinese Remainder Theorem, expressing interest in the implications of the problem.
  • Another participant notes that in the case of R = ℤ, the condition I + J = R corresponds to the ideals being generated by coprime integers, leading to a familiar form of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the properties of the map and its connection to the Chinese Remainder Theorem, but the discussion contains varying levels of detail and approaches to proving surjectivity, with some aspects left as exercises for further exploration.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the nature of ideals in a commutative ring and the specific properties of the integers when considering the Chinese Remainder Theorem. Some mathematical steps and definitions may depend on the context of the ideals involved.

Fernando Revilla
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Commutative ring, map R / ( I /\ J) -> ( R/I ) x ( R/J )

I quote an unsolved question posted in MHF (November 25th, 2012) by user needhelp2.

Say that R is a commutative ring and the I and J are ideals. Show that
the map : R=(I intersection J) maps to R/I R/J given by (r + (I intersection J)) maps to (r + I; r + J) is
well defined and is an injection. Show further more that is a surjection if and
only if I + J = R.

P.S. Communicative note: Of course I meant in the title, commutative instead of communitative.
 
Last edited:
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I suppose you mean \phi:R\;/\;(I\cap J) \to (R\;/\;I)\times (R\;/\;J),\;\phi(r+I\cap J)=(r+I,r+J)

(a) \phi is well defined. Suppose r+I\cap J=r'+I\cap J, this implies r-r'\in I\cap J, that is r-r'\in I and r-r'\in J. As a consequence r+I=r'+I and r+J=r'+J or equivalently, (r+I,r+J)=(r'+I,r'+J): the image does not depend on the representants.

(b) \phi is injective. Suppose \phi(r_1+I\cap J)=\phi(r_2+I\cap J) then, (r_1+I,r_1+J)=(r_2+I,r_2+J), hence r_1-r_2\in I, r_1-r_2\in J or equivalently r_1-r_2\in I\cap J which implies r_1+I\cap J=r_2+I\cap J: \phi is injective.

(c) \phi is a surjection \Leftrightarrow\; R=I+J.

\Rightarrow) Let s\in R, as \phi is a surjection there exists r\in R such that \phi(r+I\cap J)=(0+I,s+J), that is r+I=0+I and r+J=s+J. This implies r\in I and s-r\in J, so s=r+j with r\in I and j\in J. As a consequence I+J\subset R\subset I+J, or equivalently R=I+J.

\Leftarrow) (Left as an exercise for the reader). :)
 
suppose $R = I+J$. then for any $r \in R$ we have $r = x+y$. for some $x \in I, y \in J$.

let $(r + I,r'+J)$ be any element of $R/I \times R/J$.

writing $r = x + y, r' = x' + y'$ we have:

$r+I = (x+y)+I = (y+x)+I = y+I + x+I = y+ I + I = y + I$ and:

$r'+J = (x'+y')+J = x'+J + y'+J = x'+J + J = x' + J$

let $s = x'+y$. then

$\phi(s+(I\cap J)) = \phi((x'+y)+(I\cap J)) = ((x'+y)+I,(x'+y)+J)$

$= ((x'+I)+(y+I),(x'+J)+(y+J)) = (I+(y+I),(x'+J)+J)= (y+I,x'+J) = (r+I,r'+I)$

so $\phi$ is surjective.

oh snap! this is the chinese remainder theorem in disguise, isn't it?
 
Last edited:
Deveno said:
oh snap! this is the chinese remainder theorem in disguise, isn't it?

A very interesting question. :)
 
If $R = \Bbb Z$ then the condition $I + J = R$ is equivalent to:

$(a) + (b) = (1)$ that is, a and b are co-prime: gcd(a,b) = 1 (using tacitly the fact that $\Bbb Z$ is a principal ideal domain, which follows from the fact that it is euclidean).

In this case, $I\cap J = (a) \cap (b) = (\text{lcm}(a,b)) = \left(\frac{ab}{\gcd(a,b)}\right) = (ab)$

We can thus conclude that if gcd(a,b) = 1:

$\Bbb Z/(ab) \cong \Bbb Z/(a) \times \Bbb Z/(b)$ a more familiar form of the CRT.
 

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