Chopin
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Suppose we have a Lagrangian \mathcal{L(\phi, \partial_\mu \phi)} over a field \phi, and some variation on the field \delta \phi. If this variation induces a variation \delta \mathcal{L} = \partial_\mu F^\mu for some function F^\mu, then Noether's Theorem tells us that if we construct the quantity q^\mu = \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_\mu \phi)}\delta \phi - F^\mu, then \partial_\mu q^\mu = 0.
In quantum field theory, it is apparently also the case that this quantity can be used to form a generator for the symmetry. I'd like to understand how this is so, but am having some issues proving it. Here's what I understand:
1. Since \partial_\mu q^\mu = 0, if we construct Q(t) = \int dx\:q^0(x,t), then \frac{d}{dt}Q(t) = 0, so Q(t) = Q.
2. Showing that Q generates the symmetry means I need to show that \frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q, \phi\right] = \delta \phi. Expanding that out, we have:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q,\phi(x,t)\right] = \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left[q^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\\<br /> = \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left(\left[\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right]\delta \phi(x',t) + \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}(x',t)\left[\delta\phi(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right] - \left[F^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\right)
3. Now we impose the canonical commutation relations \left[\phi(x, t), \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0\phi)}(x',t)\right] = i\hbar\delta(x'-x):
\frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q,\phi(x,t)\right] = \delta \phi(x,t) + \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left(\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}\left[\delta\phi(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right] - \left[F^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\right)
The first term is exactly what I want. Therefore, I need to somehow get the last two terms to cancel, but I'm not exactly sure how to go about doing this. Can anybody illustrate how I can make this cancellation happen?
In quantum field theory, it is apparently also the case that this quantity can be used to form a generator for the symmetry. I'd like to understand how this is so, but am having some issues proving it. Here's what I understand:
1. Since \partial_\mu q^\mu = 0, if we construct Q(t) = \int dx\:q^0(x,t), then \frac{d}{dt}Q(t) = 0, so Q(t) = Q.
2. Showing that Q generates the symmetry means I need to show that \frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q, \phi\right] = \delta \phi. Expanding that out, we have:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q,\phi(x,t)\right] = \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left[q^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\\<br /> = \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left(\left[\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right]\delta \phi(x',t) + \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}(x',t)\left[\delta\phi(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right] - \left[F^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\right)
3. Now we impose the canonical commutation relations \left[\phi(x, t), \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0\phi)}(x',t)\right] = i\hbar\delta(x'-x):
\frac{i}{\hbar}\left[Q,\phi(x,t)\right] = \delta \phi(x,t) + \frac{i}{\hbar}\int dx'\:\left(\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\partial_0 \phi)}\left[\delta\phi(x',t),\phi(x,t)\right] - \left[F^0(x',t), \phi(x, t)\right]\right)
The first term is exactly what I want. Therefore, I need to somehow get the last two terms to cancel, but I'm not exactly sure how to go about doing this. Can anybody illustrate how I can make this cancellation happen?
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