Continuity of (x^2 + y^2)sin(1/(x^2+y^2)) Derivative at 0

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the continuity of the derivative of the function (x^2 + y^2)sin(1/(x^2+y^2)) at the origin. It is established that while x^2sin(1/x) is not continuous at zero, the radial extension (x^2+y^2)sin(1/√(x^2+y^2)) is also not differentiable at zero when expressed in polar coordinates. The participants highlight the complexities of derivatives in polar coordinates and the importance of accurate substitutions, particularly noting that r = √(x^2+y^2) is crucial for proper analysis.

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brydustin
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obviously x^2sin(1/x) isn't continuous in its derivative at zero. But it seems if you take
(x^2 + y^2) sin(1/(x^2+y^2)) and switch to polar coordinates then the derivative is continuous at zero... but that can't be right... can it?
 
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The second function doesn't restrict to the first function on the x-axis, so I'm not sure why you would be surprised their differentiability properties would be different. On the other hand the function

(x^2+y^2) \sin( \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} )
is the radial extension of your original function to the x-y plane, and when you switch to polar coordinates you get that it is not differentiable at zero (since it's the exact same function once you do that)
 
Please be more specific. What are your calculations, for instance?

Also, the derivative in polar coordinates aren't that simple. If we have r=f(θ), then f'(θ) isn't necessarily the slope of the line tangent to f at θ.
 
Office_Shredder said:
The second function doesn't restrict to the first function on the x-axis, so I'm not sure why you would be surprised their differentiability properties would be different. On the other hand the function

(x^2+y^2) \sin( \frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} )
is the radial extension of your original function to the x-y plane, and when you switch to polar coordinates you get that it is not differentiable at zero (since it's the exact same function once you do that)

g'(r,alpha) = (for all alpha) = z2r*sin(1/r*sqrt(z)) - r^2/sqrt(r*z) cos(1/r*sqrt(z)) is what I get. where z = cos^2(alpha) + sin^2(alpha). And the limit should exist as r goes to zero by the squeeze theorem., ... right?
 
Whovian said:
Please be more specific. What are your calculations, for instance?

Also, the derivative in polar coordinates aren't that simple. If we have r=f(θ), then f'(θ) isn't necessarily the slope of the line tangent to f at θ.

OH, no... I made a mistake. I made a bad substitution as I forgot that r = sqrt(x^2+y^2) and then its really trivial. Funny, that I had this idea but did the transformation wrong, still.
 
Last edited:

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