Converrgence of oscillating sequence

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on proving the convergence of the oscillating sequence defined by c_{n+1} = 1/(1+c_n) with c_1 = 1. The user successfully demonstrated that the differences between consecutive terms alternate in sign. They are seeking assistance in proving that the absolute differences decrease and approach zero, which is essential for establishing convergence. The user has derived that |c_{n+1} - c_n| is less than |c_n - c_{n-1}|, indicating a decreasing trend in absolute differences. The conclusion suggests that these properties imply the sequence is Cauchy, thereby confirming its convergence.
haXadecimal
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
Convergence of oscillating sequence

Hi, I have to prove that an oscillating sequence converges, I am having some difficulty with the proof.

The sequence is c_{n+1} = \frac{1}{1+c_{n}} , c_{1} = 1

So, I've calculated the first few terms and have seen that the sequence oscillates. I know that I need to prove:
1) The differences alternate in sign.
2) The absolute differences decrease.
3) The absolute differences approach 0.

I have proved 1, using:

<br /> c_{n+1} - c_{n} = \left(\frac{1}{1+c_{n}}\right) - \left(\frac{1}{1+c_{n-1}}\right)<br /> =\frac{1+c_{n-1}-1-c_{n}}{1+c_{n-1}+c_{n}+c_{n-1}c_{n}}<br />
<br /> =\frac{-(c_{n}-c_{n-1})}{1+c_{n-1}+c_{n}=c_{n-1}c_{n}}<br />

And since all terms are positive, the denomenator will be positive and the difference between two terms with alternate in sign from the difference between the previous two terms.

I now am having trouble proving 2 and 3. I'm not exactly sure what to do; the example in my book is not very helpful.So far I have:

<br /> |c_{n+1}-c_{n}| &lt; |c_{n} - c_{n-1}|<br />

but that's not much... If anyone could help, that would be great! Thanks!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Note that:
(1+c_{n})(1+c_{n-1})=2+c_{n-1}
By substituting c_{n}=\frac{1}{1+c_{n-1}}
 
Thank you! Ok, now I have:

<br /> |c_{n+1}-c_{n}| = \frac{|c_{n}-c_{n-1}|}{2+c_{n-1}}<br />

And since all terms are positive, 2+c_{n-1} will be positive, and each absolute difference will be a fraction of the previous absolute difference. Therefore they are decreasing and they will approach 0 as n apporaches infinity. Is that enough to prove this by just saying this? Thanks!

(Is there any way to change the title of the thread? I made a typo :redface: )
 
Technically, I guess you should prove that the gained relations imply that we've got a Cauchy sequence, and hence, that the sequence converges (depends on what you may take as granted)
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
765