Convolution product between x² and x³

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    Convolution Product
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convolution product of the functions x² and x³, exploring the mathematical formulation and potential indeterminate forms arising from the integral definitions. Participants are examining different approaches to the convolution and questioning the validity of certain expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants attempt to compute the convolution product using the integral definition, leading to an indeterminate form.
  • One participant claims that by a different definition, the convolution yields a result of 1/60 x⁶.
  • There is a question regarding the equivalence of the integral from negative to positive infinity and the integral from 0 to x, with participants expressing uncertainty about this relationship.
  • Another participant inquires about a symmetric algebraic definition of convolution, suggesting an alternative formulation that does not align with the standard definition.
  • Participants request clarification and proofs regarding the claims made about the convolution results.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is no consensus on the equivalence of the different integral formulations or the validity of the results obtained. Multiple competing views and questions remain unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not provided complete proofs or assumptions underlying their claims, leading to uncertainty about the mathematical steps involved in the convolution product.

Jhenrique
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I tryied make the convolution product between x² and x³ by ##\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du## and the result is an indeterminate form, however, by definition ##\int_{0}^{x} f(u) g(x-u) du##, the result is 1/60 x6. So, [tex]\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du \overset{?}{=} \frac{1}{60} x^6[/tex] ?
 
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Jhenrique said:
I tryied make the convolution product between x² and x³ by ##\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du## and the result is an indeterminate form, however, by definition ##\int_{0}^{x} f(u) g(x-u) du##, the result is 1/60 x6. So, [tex]\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du \overset{?}{=} \frac{1}{60} x^6[/tex] ?
Show us what you did, please.
 
Mark44 said:
Show us what you did, please.
imagem.png


BTW, exist a symmetric algebraic definition for convolution where the graphic of the function f(x) is moved oppositely to g(x) and vice-versa (different of the standard definition, where a function is fixed and the another is moved over the first)? I tryied ##\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(\frac{1}{2}x+u) g(\frac{1}{2}x-u) du##, but this expression isn't equal to the convolution of f and g...
 
Jhenrique said:
I tryied make the convolution product between x² and x³ by ##\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du## and the result is an indeterminate form, however, by definition ##\int_{0}^{x} f(u) g(x-u) du##, the result is 1/60 x6.

OK, so far.

According to you, how does this follow exactly:

So, [tex]\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du \overset{?}{=} \frac{1}{60} x^6[/tex] ?
 
micromass said:
Jhenrique said:
[tex]\int_{- \infty}^{+ \infty} f(u) g(x-u) du \overset{?}{=} \frac{1}{60} x^6[/tex]
According to you, how does this follow exactly:

This equation isn't an affirmation, is a question. In acctually, I'm asking if ##\int_{- \infty}^{+\infty} f(u)g(x−u)du## is equal to ##\int_{0}^{x} f(u)g(x−u)du##.
 
Jhenrique said:
This equation isn't an affirmation, is a question. In acctually, I'm asking if ##\int_{- \infty}^{+\infty} f(u)g(x−u)du## is equal to ##\int_{0}^{x} f(u)g(x−u)du##.

I know it's a question. But you're not going to learn much if we solve the question for you. So again, why do you think it's equal? Try to give the proof you're thinking of.
 

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