MHB Cooling Off Period: Probability of Jill Retaliating Over 60 Days

  • Thread starter Thread starter Steve3
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Cooling Period
Steve3
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Could anyone venture a guess or offer comments on the following...

Jill is very P.O.ed at something Jack did. Jill decides to retaliate. Jill's blood is boiling the day after the incident with Jack and is most likely to retaliate that day. On Day 2, Jill has cooled down just a little but has not forgotten about the incident with Jack. However, Jill is less likely to retaliate on Day 2. On Day 3, Jill is even less likely to retaliate. And so on for 60 days after the incident with Jack. On Day 60, Jill has forgotten about the incident with Jack and the probability that Jill will retaliate on Day 60 is 0. Is there a theory in human philosophy that defines for any day out of 60 days the probability that Jill will retaliate? Is there a function for this probability?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Depends on how the urge to retaliate dissipates.

If it was a linear shape then you could consider

Let $X$ be Jill retaliating against Jack and $T$ be the number of days after the initial act by Jack.

Then

\[ P(X) = \begin{cases}
1-\frac{T}{60}, & T \leq 60 \\
0, & T>60 \\
\end{cases}
\]
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.

Similar threads

Back
Top