Cosmological constant deceleration parameter

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Homework Statement



Give [itex]q(t)[/itex] the deceleration parameter, as a function of:
[itex]\Omega_{\Lambda}[/itex],
the cosmological constant density,
and
[itex]\bar{a}(t) = \frac{a(t)}{a(t_{0})}= 1+ H_{0} (t-t_{0}) - \frac{1}{2} q_{0} H_{0}^{2} (t-t_{0})^{2}[/itex]
where [itex]a[/itex]'s the scale factors

have already defined [itex]τ = H_{0}t[/itex] time parameter, and showed:PLEASE DON'T GIVE SOLUTION (I will repeat it at the end)

I just want to reconfirm my result at first stage.

Homework Equations



[itex]q(t)= -\frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{\ddot{a}}{a}[/itex]

[itex]\frac{1}{\bar{a}} \frac{d \bar{a}}{dτ}= \frac{H}{H_{0}}[/itex]

[itex]H^{2} + \frac{k}{a^{2}} = \frac{ \rho_{\Lambda}}{3M_{Pl}^{2}}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I made the observation that [itex]q(t)[/itex] is given by:

[itex]q(t) \propto \frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{dH}{dt}[/itex]

proof:
[itex]\frac{dH}{dt} = \frac{\ddot{a}}{a} - \frac{\dot{a}^{2}}{a^2}[/itex]
so
[itex]\frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{dH}{dt} = \frac{1}{H^{2}} (\frac{\ddot{a}}{a} - H^{2})[/itex]
the first term is [itex]-q(t)[/itex]. The second term is 1...
[itex]\frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{dH}{dt} = -q(t) -1[/itex]

[itex]q(t)= -1 - \frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{dH}{dt}[/itex]

So far I think I didn't lose any step... Then I take Friedman equations, and have:

[itex]\frac{H^{2}}{H_{0}^{2}} = \Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}}[/itex]

or:

[itex]H=H_{0} \sqrt{ \Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}}}[/itex]

I take its derivative wrt to t:

[itex]\dot{H} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{H_{0}}{\sqrt{ \Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}}}} \frac{2k \dot{a}}{H_{0}^{2} a^{3}}[/itex]

[itex]\dot{H} = \frac{ H k}{H_{0} a^{2} \sqrt{ \Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}}}}[/itex]

I insert this to the equation I got for [itex]q(t)[/itex], one H is going to be canceled:

[itex]q(t)= -1 - \frac{1}{H^{2}} \frac{dH}{dt}[/itex]

[itex]q(t)= -1 - \frac{ k}{ H_{0} a^{2} H \sqrt{ \Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}}}}[/itex]

and using again that [itex]H[/itex] is the same square root multiplied by [itex]H_{0}[/itex]:

[itex]q(t)= -1 - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2} a^{2} (\Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{k}{H_{0}^{2}a^{2}})}[/itex]

Now I can generally determine [itex]k[/itex] from taking the Friedman equation today.
[itex]\frac{k}{H_{0}^{2} a_{0}^{2}} = \Omega_{\Lambda} - 1[/itex]

[itex]\frac{k}{H_{0}^{2} a^{2}} = \frac{\Omega_{\Lambda} - 1}{\bar{a}^{2}}[/itex][itex]q(t)= -1 - \frac{\Omega_{\Lambda} - 1}{\bar{a}^{2}} \frac{1}{\Omega_{\Lambda} - \frac{\Omega_{\Lambda} - 1}{\bar{a}^{2}}}[/itex]

[itex]q(t)= -1 + \frac{1- \Omega_{\Lambda}}{(\bar{a}^{2}-1) \Omega_{\Lambda} +1}[/itex]

Do you see any flaw?
Am I always possible to define [itex]a_{0}=1[/itex] in order to make it disappear?
PLEASE DON'T GIVE SOLUTION
 
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