Hey all, Is it correct to say that magnetic moment of particles with spin is because of the spin itself, and has nothing to do with any moving charge? The exception here would be the photon of course, but I'm not sure whether "photon spin" is the same kind of angular momentum as the spin of particles with mass or indeed if the photon actually has a magnetic dipole but it's behaving strangely because the photon moves at c. If so, according to this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spin–charge_separation it's possible to somehow split an electron into its constituent "spinor" and "chargon". Since the spin particle is responsible for magnetism, wouldn't you have to conclude that it's a magnetic dipole itself made up of some kind of magnetically charged particles, i.e. perhaps the magnetic monopoles? My question is, would it be possible to further split the "spinor" particle and obtain pure magnetic monopoles?