D/dx in Spherical Coordinates: What am I Missing?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between partial derivatives in the context of converting between rectangular and spherical coordinates. The original poster questions the validity of the equation \(\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = \left(\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}\right)^{-1}\) and expresses confusion regarding their equality.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of partial derivatives and their dependence on other variables. The original poster attempts to demonstrate the relationship between the derivatives but finds discrepancies. Others suggest that the conditions under which the derivatives are taken differ, leading to confusion.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the nature of partial derivatives and questioning the assumptions behind the original equation. Some guidance has been offered regarding the differences between total and partial derivatives, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the variables involved in the derivatives may not be held constant in the same manner, which is central to the confusion. The discussion also touches on the implications of using different coordinate systems.

raul_l
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Homework Statement



Hi. I have a simple question. Is it true that [tex]\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1}[/tex] ?

Because I'm having some trouble with the conversion between rectangular and spherical coordinates.

Homework Equations



[tex]x = r cos \phi sin \theta[/tex]

[tex]y = r sin \phi sin \theta[/tex]

[tex]z = r cos \theta[/tex]

[tex]r = \sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



It is easy to show that
[tex]\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = cos \phi sin \theta[/tex]

However, we see that
[tex](\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1} = (\frac{\partial (r cos \phi sin \theta)}{\partial r})^{-1}= \frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}[/tex]

and these are clearly not equal.

What am I missing? :confused:
 
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Hi raul_l! :smile:

(have a curly d: ∂ :wink:)
raul_l said:
Hi. I have a simple question. Is it true that [tex]\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r})^{-1}[/tex] ?

No, it doesn't work for partial derivatives, because they depend on what the other (unwritten) coordinates are.

∂r/dx keeps y constant, but ∂x/dr keeps θ constant …

and keeping y and θ constant aren't the same! :wink:
 
Yes, I suspected that. Thanks.

But it's weird that if I multiply both sides by [tex]\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}[/tex] I get
[tex]\frac{\partial r}{\partial x} \frac{\partial x}{\partial r} = 1[/tex]
and that seems mathematically correct.
 
You made a little mistake.:wink:

[tex]\frac{dx}{dr}=cos \phi sin \theta[/tex]

Proof.

[tex] r = \frac{x}{cos \phi sin \theta} [/tex]

[tex]dr=\frac{(x)'cos \phi sin \theta - x(cos \phi sin \theta)'}{cos^2 \phi sin^2 \theta} dx[/tex]

[tex]dr=\frac{cos \phi sin \theta}{cos^2 \phi sin^2 \theta}dx[/tex]

[tex]dr=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}dx[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dr}{dx}=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}[/tex]

Is this right, mate :smile: ?
 
Last edited:
njama said:
Is this right, mate :smile: ?

Sorry, chuck :redface:

not unless you're using those weird (x,θ,φ) coordinates. :rolleyes:
 
Just you need to prove that

[tex]\frac{dr}{dx} = (\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1}[/tex]

[tex](\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1}=(cos \phi sin \theta)^{-1}=\frac{1}{cos \phi sin \theta}=\frac{dr}{dx}[/tex]

I can do science me. :smile:
 
njama, there's a difference between [tex]\frac{dr}{dx}[/tex] and [tex]\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}[/tex].

Correct me if I'm wrong but I think the left side of what you wrote is equal to
[tex]\frac{dr}{dx} = \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial r}{\partial y} \frac{d y}{d x} + \frac{\partial r}{\partial z} \frac{d z}{d x}[/tex]

while right side is equal to
[tex](\frac{dx}{dr})^{-1} = (\frac{\partial x}{\partial r} + \frac{\partial x}{\partial \phi} \frac{d \phi}{d r} + \frac{\partial x}{\partial \theta} \frac{d \theta}{d r})^{-1}[/tex]

and it doesn't look like these would be equal.
 
Last edited:

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