Decreasing nonnegative sequence and nonincreasing functions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the properties of a nonnegative nonincreasing sequence $\{p_n\}$ that converges to a limit $p \ge 0$, and the behavior of a nondecreasing function $f : [0,\infty) \to [0,\infty)$. It is established that since $\{p_n\}$ is nonincreasing, $p = \inf\{p_n : n \in \mathbb{N}\}$, leading to the conclusion that $f(p_n) \ge f(p) \ge 0$. The participants clarify that the inequalities are not strict, and a misunderstanding regarding the relationship $p_{n+1} \le p_n - f(p)$ is addressed, confirming it is not necessarily true.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of nonnegative sequences and their convergence
  • Knowledge of nondecreasing functions and their properties
  • Familiarity with mathematical notation and limits
  • Basic principles of inequalities in real analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of nonincreasing sequences in real analysis
  • Explore the implications of nondecreasing functions on limits
  • Learn about the concept of infimum in the context of sequences
  • Investigate strict versus non-strict inequalities in mathematical proofs
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Mathematicians, students of real analysis, and anyone interested in the behavior of sequences and functions in mathematical contexts.

ozkan12
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Let $\{p_n\}$ be a nonnegative nonincreasing sequence and converges to $p \ge 0$. Let $f : [0,\infty)\to[0,\infty)$ be a nondecreasing function. So, since f is a nondecreasing function, $f(p_n)>f(p)>0$. How did this happen?
 
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Hi ozkan12,

Since $\{p_n\}$ is nonincreasing and converging to $p$, $p = \inf\{p_n : n\in \Bbb N\}$, so $p_n \ge p$ for all $n\in \Bbb N$. Consequently, as $f$ is nondecreasing, $f(p_n) \ge f(p)$. So we have $f(p_n) \ge f(p) \ge 0$.

Note that the inequalities above are not strict.
 
Euge said:
Hi ozkan12,

Since $\{p_n\}$ is nonincreasing and converging to $p$, $p = \inf\{p_n : n\in \Bbb N\}$, so $p_n \ge p$ for all $n\in \Bbb N$. Consequently, as $f$ is nondecreasing, $f(p_n) \ge f(p)$. So we have $f(p_n) \ge f(p) \ge 0$.

Note that the inequalities above are not strict.

ok thanks a lot :) but I will ask one question : so, pn+1<=pn-f(p)...how this happened ?
 
ozkan12 said:
ok thanks a lot :) but I will ask one question : so, pn+1<=pn-f(p)...how this happened ?

I'm sorry, I don't understand -- where did you get $p_{n+1} \le p_n - f(p)$? This need not be true.
 
Euge said:
I'm sorry, I don't understand -- where did you get $p_{n+1} \le p_n - f(p)$? This need not be true.

ok :) I see my false :) I repair that :)
 

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