Degree of extension invariant upto isomorphism?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the relationship between the degrees of field extensions when two subfields of a larger field are isomorphic. Participants explore whether the degree of extension from a field to a larger field is invariant under isomorphism of subfields, particularly focusing on finite extensions and providing examples.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the degree of extension $[K:F_2]$ must be finite and equal to $n$ if $[K:F_1]$ is finite and equal to $n$, given that $F_1$ and $F_2$ are isomorphic.
  • Another participant provides an example using $F = \mathbb{Q}$, $F_1 = F(x)$, and $F_2 = F(x^2)$, suggesting that $F_1$ is isomorphic to $F_2$ but that $[K:F_1]$ has degree 1 while $[K:F_2]$ does not.
  • Further discussion clarifies that $K/F_2$ does not have degree 1 because $1$ and $x$ are linearly independent over $F_2$.
  • One participant proposes that $[K:F_2]$ is finite, arguing that a polynomial $p(y) = x^2y^3 - x^4y$ in $F_2[y]$ has $p(x) = 0$, suggesting that this implies finiteness.
  • Another participant confirms this reasoning and prompts for a simpler polynomial that also satisfies the condition.
  • A simpler polynomial $p(y) = y^2 - x^2$ is suggested as an alternative that also has $p(x) = 0$.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of the degree of extension being invariant under isomorphism, with some providing examples that challenge the assumption. There is no consensus reached on the broader implications of these examples.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that additional hypotheses may be required for certain conclusions, particularly regarding the extension of isomorphisms to automorphisms of the larger field.

caffeinemachine
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Let $K$ be a field and $F_1$ and $F_2$ be subfields of $K$. Assume that $F_1$ and $F_2$ are isomorphic as fields. Further assume that $[K:F_1]$ is finite and is equal to $n$.

Is it necessary that $[K:F_2]$ is finite and is equal to $n$??
___

I have not found this question in a book so I don't know the answer to the above question. I could not construct a counterexample.
If the isomorphism between $F_1$ and $F_2$ can be extended to an automorphism of $K$ (this probably required additional hypothesis) then the result can be proved in the affirmative.
 
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Here is an idea:

Let $F = {\mathbb Q}$ (to fix ideas). Consider $F_1 = F(x)$ and $F_2 = F(x^2)$, and finally $K = F(x)$. The field $F_1$ should be isomorphic to $F_2$ since $x^2$ is trascendental over $F$.

Clearly $K/F_1$ has degree 1. However ;).
 
PaulRS said:
Here is an idea:

Let $F = {\mathbb Q}$ (to fix ideas). Consider $F_1 = F(x)$ and $F_2 = F(x^2)$, and finally $K = F(x)$. The field $F_1$ should be isomorphic to $F_2$ since $x^2$ is trascendental over $F$.

Clearly $K/F_1$ has degree 1. However ;).
So $K/F_2$ doesn't have degree $1$ simply because $1$ and $x$ in $K$ are LI over $F_2$. Is that right?
 
caffeinemachine said:
So $K/F_2$ doesn't have degree $1$ simply because $1$ and $x$ in $K$ are LI over $F_2$. Is that right?

Right. Otherwise $x\in F_2$ and so $x = f(x^2) / g(x^2)$ for some polynomials $f$ and $g$ ($g\neq 0$), which you can check is nonsense.
 
PaulRS said:
Right. Otherwise $x\in F_2$ and so $x = f(x^2) / g(x^2)$ for some polynomials $f$ and $g$ ($g\neq 0$), which you can check is nonsense.
That's great Paul.

I have one more question.

I think that $[K:F_2]$ is finite.
My Argument:
Clearly $K=F_2(x)$. Now define a polynomial $p(y)=x^2y^3-x^4y$ in $F_2[y]$. Clearly $p(x)=0$. Thus $[K:F_2]$ is finite.

Is this okay?
 
caffeinemachine said:
That's great Paul.

I have one more question.

I think that $[K:F_2]$ is finite.
My Argument:
Clearly $K=F_2(x)$. Now define a polynomial $p(y)=x^2y^3-x^4y$ in $F_2[y]$. Clearly $p(x)=0$. Thus $[K:F_2]$ is finite.

Is this okay?

Correct. :)

There is a simpler polynomial $p(y)\in F_2[y]$ such that $p(x) = 0$, can you find it?
 
PaulRS said:
Correct. :)

There is a simpler polynomial $p(y)\in F_2[y]$ such that $p(x) = 0$, can you find it?
$p(y)=y^2-x^2$. That's just awesome!
 

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