For a set with n points of data, why is the "degree of freedom" of the standard variance n-1? Hell, what does "degree of freedom" actually mean?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Heck, my book "proves" this by saying that since ##\sum_1^n (x_i - \bar{x}) = 0## (obviously), then ##\sum_1^n (x_i - \bar{x})^2## must have n-1 independent pieces of information? Is this connection supposed to be obvious?

My gut feeling agrees that the degree of freedom is n-1, but my brain does not understand. Can somebody explain it formally?

PS: My class statistics book is "Statistics for scientists and engineers, 9th ED". Is it crap (so far I don't like it)? You guys can recommend something better?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Degree of freedom and formula for standard variation

Loading...

Similar Threads - Degree freedom formula | Date |
---|---|

I Degrees of Freedom | Jun 14, 2017 |

Degrees of Freedom | Mar 14, 2014 |

Bessel's correction and degrees of freedom | Feb 28, 2014 |

How many degrees of freedom ? | Jan 30, 2014 |

Question about Degrees of Freedom | Jan 2, 2014 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**