Deriving Fourier Series for a Regular Sawtooth Wave

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on deriving the Fourier series for a regular sawtooth wave defined by the piecewise function f(x) = {-1/2(π + x) for -π ≤ x < 0; 1/2(π - x) for 0 < x ≤ π}. The correct Fourier series representation is f(x) = ∑(n=1 to ∞) (sin(nx)/n). The odd nature of the function results in all cosine coefficients being zero, and the sine coefficients are calculated using the formula a_n = (1/π)∫(−π to π) f(x)sin(nx)dx. The discussion clarifies that the zeroth sine coefficient a_0 is always zero, as sin(0) equals zero.

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cj
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I can derive the Fourier series for a regular
sawtooth wave.

A different kind of sawtooth is represented by:

f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}-\frac{1}{2}(\pi +x),&amp;\mbox{ if }<br /> =-\pi \leq x &lt; 0\\+\frac{1}{2}(\pi -x),&amp; \mbox{ if } 0 &lt; x \leq \pi\end{array}\right.

For the life of me I can't figure out how
to derive the series for this, which is:

f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} sin (nx/n)
 
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Probably a typo, but:
f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}

It's obtained the usual way. The function is odd, so all the cosine coefficients are zero.
Now just get:

a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx

where a_n is the coefficient of sin(nx)
 
Yes, you're right -- there was a typo.

Does the integration breaks down
into

a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx + \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{0}f(x)\sin(nx)dx \text { ??}

Also, does an a_0 term need to be
determined? I'm not sure when,
or when not, to include an a_n.

Thanks a lot.

Galileo said:
Probably a typo, but:
f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{n}

It's obtained the usual way. The function is odd, so all the cosine coefficients are zero.
Now just get:

a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx

where a_n is the coefficient of sin(nx)
 
cj said:
Also, does an a_0 term need to be
determined? I'm not sure when,
or when not, to include an a_n.
No. There's an easy way to remember/see it. If n=0, then sin(nx)=0.
So the zeroth coeff. of the sine is always zero.
For the cosine: cos(nx)=1 if n=0.

cj said:
a_n=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\pi}f(x)\sin(nx)dx + \frac{1}{\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{0}f(x)\sin(nx)dx \text { ??}
That's correct, so that's all there's to it.
Both integrals are equal though, since f(x) and sin(nx) are odd, f(x)sin(nx) is even.
 

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