Deriving the Unitary Gauge of the Higgs Mechanism

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the derivation and implications of the equation Φ = (v + η + iξ) = (v + η)ei(ξ/v) within the context of the Higgs mechanism, as presented in Halzen and Martin's "Quarks and Leptons". Participants clarify that this equation is an approximation, particularly when using the Taylor expansion, which neglects higher-order terms. The unitary gauge is debated as potentially being an approximation rather than an exact representation, raising questions about the nature of Goldstone particles and their absence in the Lagrangian. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the polar representation of the Higgs field and its role in gauge symmetry.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Higgs mechanism and its mathematical framework
  • Familiarity with Taylor series expansions and approximations
  • Knowledge of gauge theories and local gauge symmetry
  • Basic concepts of particle physics, particularly Goldstone bosons
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  • Study the derivation of the Higgs mechanism in "Quarks and Leptons" by Halzen and Martin
  • Learn about Taylor expansions and their applications in quantum field theory
  • Explore the implications of gauge symmetry breaking in particle physics
  • Investigate the role of Goldstone bosons in spontaneous symmetry breaking
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Particle physicists, theoretical physicists, and students studying quantum field theory who seek a deeper understanding of the Higgs mechanism and gauge symmetries.

ohs
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Dear @ll,

the central point (for the unitary gauge) in the higgs-mechanism is the equality

Φ = (v + η + iξ) = (v + η)ei(ξ/v) (see for example Halzen, Martin: Quarks and Leptons, eq. 14.56)

Φ = complex scalar Field
v = vacuum that breaks the symmetry spontaneously
η,ξ = shifted fields.

I am unhappy that i did not found a derivation of this equation. Is it a triviality? Some people say that this is an exact equation (polar representation of the field ?). Other (Halzen,Martin) say that it is an approximation up to the lowest order only.

Can somebody help me and post a derivation of this equation ?

Thanks in advance

Ohs
 
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Taylor approximation to first order: ##(v + η)e^{i(ξ/v)} \approx (v + η)(1+iξ/v) = v + η + iξ + iηξ/v ##. I guess the last term is neglected.

It is certainly not exact in general.
 
Thank you very much for your reply.
I am glad that this point is now clear for me: it is only an approximation!

But what about the physics of this approximation?
Does it mean, that the unitary gauge ist an approximation also ?
And that the Goldstone-particles does vanish from the lagrangian not exactly but approximated only?

Questions over questions.
 
I don't have the book so I don't know the context, but typically you take the limit of shifts->0 at some point, in that case higher orders do not matter and the result is exactly true.
 
The trick with the unitary gauge is to write the Higgs field in the polar form and then observing that you can gauge away the exponential factor. In this way you see the particle content and unitarity of the S-matrix explicitly, i.e., three of the Higgs field degrees of freedom (which would be the massless Goldstone modes if the symmetry was global) are absorbed into the gauge fields, providing the additional field degree of freedom necessary to make them massive. This must be so, because massless vector fields have two helicity degrees of freedom, massive vector fields have three spin degrees of freedom.

This also shows that a local gauge symmetry cannot be spontaneously broken, as proven by Elitzur (although that's usually the sloppy jargon used in all textbooks and papers ;-)): There are no massless Goldstone bosons, which necessarily should occur if there was real spontaneous symmetry breaking, which occurs when a global symmetry is spontaneously broken (e.g., the pions are the approximate Goldstone modes of spontaneous chiral-symmetry breaking in the light-quark sector of QCD).
 

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