Well, the ratio test is the following. Given a (formal) series
[tex]S=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n[/tex]
with [itex]a_n \geq 0[/itex], you compare it to the geometric series
[tex]S'=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} q^n, \quad q \geq 0[/tex]
The geometric series is convergent for [itex]0 \leq q<1[/itex].
This implies that if for some [itex]N[/itex] you have [itex]a_n<q^n[/itex] for all [itex]n>N[/itex] with some [itex]0 \leq q<1[/itex], the series is convergent. No it's easy to show that this is the case if
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}<1.[/tex]
Note that this makes, of course, only sense if the ratio converges. Also it's important to keep in mind that this ratio cirterion is only suffcient for convergence of the series but by no means necessary, i.e., even if the ratio converges to 1, it doesn't mean that the series is necessarily divergent. For sure, it is divergent, if the ratio converges to a limit [itex]>1[/itex].
If I say more about the current question, I'd solve the task, but this the OP should be able to do now ;-).