Determining the value of B1 (or RF) in NMR

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Bubble22
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Nmr Rf Value
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the value of B1 (or RF) in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR), specifically focusing on the relationship between magnetization rotation time and the frequency of precession. Participants explore the mathematical relationships involved in this process.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant inquires about how to determine B1 given the time it takes for magnetization to rotate from its initial position to the xy plane, referencing the formula ω = γB1 = 2∏f1.
  • Another participant suggests expressing the frequency in terms of the period for one cycle and questions what fraction of the cycle corresponds to the journey from the z axis to the xy plane.
  • A participant expresses confusion about the transition from frequency to period and seeks clarification on how to proceed with the calculations.
  • Another participant indicates that the time for the spin to precess from the z direction to the xy plane corresponds to a 90-degree rotation, suggesting that the necessary information to find B1 is available.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion remains unresolved, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem without reaching a consensus on the approach to determine B1.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully clarified the assumptions regarding the definitions of terms or the specific conditions under which the formulas apply. There is also ambiguity in the transition from frequency to period in the context of the precession cycle.

Bubble22
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Hello

If the time that takes for magnetization to rotate from its initial position (parallel with external magnetization) to x,y plane is given, how do we determine the value of B1?

The formula I know:
ω = γB1 = 2∏f1
lB1l < lBol
angle between the magnetization and the external magnetization = ωt = γB1t

Thank you :smile:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You wrote down the frequency of precession (from the z axis to -z and back to +z) in terms of B1. Now write the frequency in terms of period (time) [itex]f_1=1 / t_1[/itex] for one cycle. What fraction of one cycle is the journey from the z axis to the xy plane?
 
marcusl said:
You wrote down the frequency of precession (from the z axis to -z and back to +z) in terms of B1. Now write the frequency in terms of period (time) [itex]f_1=1 / t_1[/itex] for one cycle. What fraction of one cycle is the journey from the z axis to the xy plane?
I'm not quite sure what you meant ..
So basically I have ω = γB1 = 2∏f1 formula, and if I write this in terms of period it would be like
ω = γB1 = 2∏(1/t).. and I'm lost afterwards.. could you be kind to explain more in detail?
 
Last edited:
You now have [itex]t_1(360)[/itex] in terms of B1. I've written it with the argument 360 because this period is the length of time for the spin to precess from the z direction down to the xy plane, on to -z, back to the xy plane, and back up to z, for a total angle of 360 degrees. You want the time it takes to go from z to the xy plane, which is an angle of 90 deg. You have everything needed to find that value.
 

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
5K