Daaavde Messages 29 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Dec 14, 2013 #1 Is it correct to state that a diagonalizable endomorphism has always kernel = {0}?
R136a1 Messages 343 Reaction score 53 Dec 14, 2013 #2 Is the zero operator a diagonalizable endomorphism?
jgens Gold Member Messages 1,575 Reaction score 50 Dec 14, 2013 #4 R13's point was that the zero map is diagonalizable and has kernel the whole space.
Daaavde Messages 29 Reaction score 0 Dec 14, 2013 #5 Right, that's the case of the zero operator. But what if my eigenvalues are all non-zero (hence my eigenvectors are all linear indipendent)?
Right, that's the case of the zero operator. But what if my eigenvalues are all non-zero (hence my eigenvectors are all linear indipendent)?
jgens Gold Member Messages 1,575 Reaction score 50 Dec 14, 2013 #6 In that case your operator has trivial kernel.