Dec 14, 2013 #1 Daaavde Messages 29 Reaction score 0 Is it correct to state that a diagonalizable endomorphism has always kernel = {0}?
Dec 14, 2013 #2 R136a1 Messages 343 Reaction score 53 Is the zero operator a diagonalizable endomorphism?
Dec 14, 2013 #4 jgens Gold Member Messages 1,575 Reaction score 50 R13's point was that the zero map is diagonalizable and has kernel the whole space.
Dec 14, 2013 #5 Daaavde Messages 29 Reaction score 0 Right, that's the case of the zero operator. But what if my eigenvalues are all non-zero (hence my eigenvectors are all linear indipendent)?
Right, that's the case of the zero operator. But what if my eigenvalues are all non-zero (hence my eigenvectors are all linear indipendent)?
Dec 14, 2013 #6 jgens Gold Member Messages 1,575 Reaction score 50 In that case your operator has trivial kernel.