a)Does convergence imply being properly defined? So would it not be properly defined if it was divergent?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

b)I am having trouble why the last part (in the attachment) says, "Then, by (1), [itex]f(x_0) - f(x) \geq dfrac{2^k} for all [itex]x < x_0[/itex]." But does (1) tell us that it's "equal" instead of "greater than or equal to"?

Thanks in advance

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# Differentiability of Monotone Function's: Lebesgue's Theorem

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