- #1

galactic

- 30

- 1

I'm familiar with the fact that the dirac delta function (when defined within an integral is even)

Meaning delta(x)= delta(-x) on the interval -a to b when integral signs are present

I want to prove this this relationship but I don't know how to do it other than with a limit maybe

Book said they proved it using a change of variables and changing limits of integration but I can't see how they proved it? Does anyone know how?