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I was under the impression that a dirac delta was a "legitimate" state for a particle: maybe not mathematically, but least physically. But I was recently told by a post-doc in QM that if your particle is in a dirac delta state at one moment, the very next moment the particle is everywhere. I'm not sure how I can see this?

PS: okay there is another problem, since you need to square it, and what is the square of a dirac delta? But this last problem doesn't seem very terrible, although I don't know what the best way is to circumvent it.

Or is the correct answer: using the dirac delta for a state is completely hopeless? (The students certainly aren't given this impression.)

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# Dirac delta wave function impossible?

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