How do you normalize this wave function?

[R P Stone]

Griffiths states for an integral like that (specifically with showing that the integral of exp(ikx) from negative infinity to infinity is zero), although it does not converge, you can replace infinity with L (which I see you have done), and take the average value of the integral as L goes to infinity. This takes you to zero. Thus (based on Griffith’s text— and he acknowledges that it would drive a mathematician insane) I would conclude that the previously mentioned sine integral would be equal to zero when k=k’ (which, of course, is the result we want).

Really many thanks. But I don’t think that strategy works here. That average would not yield zero for the integral.

 

[R P Stone]

@BvU @Isaac0427 @vanhees71 @A. Neumaier

Any new ideas? Please help! Thanks!