I Dirac equation in the hydrogen atom

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the confusion surrounding the angular part of the hydrogen wavefunction derived from the Dirac equation. The final wavefunction consists of two components with opposite parities, leading to the conclusion that orbital angular momentum, l, is not a good quantum number for Dirac spinors. While atomic states are typically labeled with definite l values, this is often an approximation, as relativistic effects can alter these properties. The bottom component of the spinor is usually ignored in the non-relativistic limit, allowing for a definite parity and angular momentum. Overall, the Dirac spinor does possess a defined parity, despite the differing parities of its components.
Malamala
Messages
347
Reaction score
28
Hello! I went over a calculation of the hydrogen wavefunction using Dirac equation (this one) and I am a bit confused by the angular part. The final result for the wavefunction based on that derivation is this:

$$
\begin{pmatrix}
if(r) Y_{j l_A}^{m_j} \\
-g(r) \frac{\vec{\sigma}\cdot\vec{x}}{r}Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}
\end{pmatrix}
$$

where ##f(r)## and ##g(r)## are radial functions and ##Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}## are spin spherical harmonics. In the derivation they show that ##Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}## and ##-\frac{\vec{\sigma}\cdot\vec{x}}{r}Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}## differ in their value of orbital angular momentum, ##l## by 1 and they have opposite parities. For example, if ##j=1/2##, ##Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}## can have ##l=1## and ##-\frac{\vec{\sigma}\cdot\vec{x}}{r}Y_{j l_A}^{m_j}## would have ##l=0## (or the other way around). This implies (as it is mentioned in that derivation) that ##l## (##L^2## as an operator) is not a good quantum number for a Dirac spinor.

I am not sure how to think about this. For example the atomic states are usually labeled as ##^{2S+1}L_{J}##, which implies that the state has a definite orbital angular momentum, l. Is that just an approximation? Another thing I don't understand is the parity. As we are dealing only with electromagnetism, the wavefunctions should have a definite parity. But the top and bottom part in the spinor above have opposite parities, so it looks like the Dirac spinor doesn't have a defined parity. Can someone explain to me how should I think about these spinors? Should I look only at the top part? I know the bottom part is ignored in non-relativistic limit, but parity should still be a good quantum number even in the relativistic case (where I can't just ignore the bottom part).

Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The spinor above is indeed a valid solution of the Dirac equation and so it does have a definite parity. However, the parity of the two components of the spinor are opposite, which is why the angular part of the wavefunction does not have a definite orbital angular momentum. In the non-relativistic limit, the bottom component is ignored, so the wavefunction has a definite parity and a definite angular momentum. In terms of labeling atomic states, it is common to use the approximate non-relativistic labels, even when considering relativistic effects. This is because in many cases, the relativistic corrections are small and so the non-relativistic labels are still good approximations.
 
We often see discussions about what QM and QFT mean, but hardly anything on just how fundamental they are to much of physics. To rectify that, see the following; https://www.cambridge.org/engage/api-gateway/coe/assets/orp/resource/item/66a6a6005101a2ffa86cdd48/original/a-derivation-of-maxwell-s-equations-from-first-principles.pdf 'Somewhat magically, if one then applies local gauge invariance to the Dirac Lagrangian, a field appears, and from this field it is possible to derive Maxwell’s...