Dirac Notation for Operators: Ambiguity in Expectation Values?

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
5 replies · 2K views
dyn
Messages
774
Reaction score
63
Hi
If A is a linear operator but not Hermitian then the expectation value of A2 is written as < ψ | A2| ψ >. Now if i write A2 as AA then i have seen the expectation value written as < ψ | A+A| ψ > but if i only apply the operators to the ket , then could i not write it as < ψ | AA | ψ > ? In other words is the notation slightly ambiguous ?
Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
dyn said:
Hi
If A is a linear operator but not Hermitian then the expectation value of A2 is written as < ψ | A2| ψ >. Now if i write A2 as AA then i have seen the expectation value written as < ψ | A+A| ψ > but if i only apply the operators to the ket , then could i not write it as < ψ | AA | ψ > ? In other words is the notation slightly ambiguous ?
Thanks
If A is not Hermitian, then ##AA \neq A^{\dagger} A##, so you can't write it that way.

-Dan
 
Reply
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: vanhees71
I might be confusing myself here but if A is not Hermitian and A2 = AA and A3 = AAA then how do i write the expectation values of these 2 quantities ?
 
dyn said:
I might be confusing myself here but if A is not Hermitian and A2 = AA and A3 = AAA then how do i write the expectation values of these 2 quantities ?
The same way you did in the OP:
##\langle A^2 \rangle = \langle \psi \mid A^2 \mid \psi \rangle \equiv \langle \psi \mid AA \mid \psi \rangle##

You would have to calculate ##\mid \phi \rangle = A \mid \psi \rangle##, then ##\mid \zeta \rangle = A \mid \phi \rangle##, then finally ##\langle \psi \mid \zeta \rangle##.

That's as far as you can go until you specify what the operator A looks like.

-Dan
 
Reply
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: malawi_glenn and dyn
topsquark said:
The same way you did in the OP:
##\langle A^2 \rangle = \langle \psi \mid A^2 \mid \psi \rangle \equiv \langle \psi \mid AA \mid \psi \rangle##

You would have to calculate ##\mid \phi \rangle = A \mid \psi \rangle##, then ##\mid \zeta \rangle = A \mid \phi \rangle##, then finally ##\langle \psi \mid \zeta \rangle##.

That's as far as you can go until you specify what the operator A looks like.

-Dan
Alternatively, you can calculate
$$
\begin{align*}
\ket{\phi} &= A \ket{\psi} \\
\ket{\chi} &= A^\dagger \ket{\psi} \\
\braket{\psi | A^2 | \psi} &= \braket{\chi| \phi}
\end{align*}
$$
 
Reply
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: topsquark and malawi_glenn
dyn said:
I might be confusing myself here but if A is not Hermitian and A2 = AA and A3 = AAA then how do i write the expectation values of these 2 quantities ?
For a pure state, represented by a normalized vector ##|\Psi \rangle## expectation value is
$$\langle f(\hat{A}) = \langle \Psi|f(\hat{A}) \Psi \rangle=\langle f(\hat{A})^{\dagger} \Psi|\Psi \rangle,$$
for an arbitrary function ##f(\hat{A})##. It doesn't matter whether the operator is self-adjoint or not for the identity of the two expressions. Of course, such an operator cannot represent an observable to begin with, and you might argue that it doesn't make sense to call this expression an "expectation value" in the first place.
 
Reply
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: topsquark