MHB Disprove "f(n)=O(f(n)^2): A Mathematical Analysis

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The statement "f(n)=O(f(n)^2)" is proven false by considering the function f(n)=1/n. The assumption that f(n) is O(f(n)^2) leads to a contradiction when analyzing the inequality, as it implies n must be greater than or equal to a constant c, which cannot hold for all n. Additionally, the discussion clarifies that the condition for f(n) to be O(f(n)^2) implies f(n) must be bounded below by a positive constant, indicating f(n) is in Ω(1). The necessity of the last paragraph in the analysis is questioned, highlighting the importance of precise terminology in mathematical discussions. Overall, the mathematical argument effectively disproves the initial statement.
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

I want to prove or disapprove the statement $f(n)=O(f(n)^2)$.

That's what I have tried:

The statement is false.
Let $f(n)=\frac{1}{n}, n \in \mathbb{N}$.
We suppose that $f(n)=O(f(n)^2)$. That means that $\exists n_0 \in \mathbb{N}, c>0$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$:
$$\frac{1}{n}=f(n) \leq c f(n)^2=c \frac{1}{n^2} \Rightarrow \frac{n^2}{n} \leq c \Rightarrow n \geq c. \text{ Contradiction.}$$

We notice that $f(n)=O(f(n)^2)$ iff $\exists c'>0, n_0' \in \mathbb{N} $ such that $\forall n \geq n_0'$: $f(n) \leq c' f(n)^2 \overset{f(n) \neq 0}{ \Rightarrow } 1 \leq c' f(n) \Rightarrow f(n) \geq \frac{1}{c'}:=C \Rightarrow f(n) \in \Omega(1)$.

Is the last paragraph necessary? (Thinking)
 
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I edited the title of your thread for the following reason:

disprove: prove that (something) is false, refute.

disapprove: have or express an unfavorable opinion about something.
 
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