Hello,
I know this is an old thread but I am interested in this problem.
I would like to know more about the approach mentioned by John Hubbard with the Haussdorf distance. Let's consider the plane R2 and try for example to calculate the Haussdorf distance between two lines passing through the origin (subspaces of dimension 1).
Each line would intersect the unit-sphere [itex]\mathcal{S}^1\subset \mathbb{R}^2[/itex] in two antipodal points [itex]\mathbf{a}\in \mathcal{S}^1[/itex] and [itex]-\mathbf{a}[/itex]. Hence we associate to the first line the set: [tex]A = \{ \mathbf{a},-\mathbf{a} \}[/tex], and to the second line the set: [tex]B = \{ \mathbf{b},-\mathbf{b} \}[/tex]
Finally we calculate the Haussdorf distance [itex]d_H(A,B)[/itex] according to the definition given by John Hubbard. Is this approach correct?
The main doubt I have about this procedure is related to the quantity [itex]\left\|v-w \right\|[/itex] mentioned in the definition of J.Hubbard. Is the [itex]\left\|\cdot \right\|[/itex] simply a L2-norm of the vector v-w in R2?
Wouldn't it be more logical to use the shortest arc between points on the sphere instead of the norm [itex]\left\|\cdot \right\|[/itex] ?
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Regarding the approach suggested by arkajad, it is not very clear what it is meant by "orthogonal projection operators" [itex]P_1[/itex], [itex]P_2[/itex]. Can anyone make an example for such an "orthogonal projection operator" in R2 ?