Do Intervals [2,3] and [2,5] in Real Numbers Share the Same Cardinality?

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    Cardinality Equivalence
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the cardinality of the intervals [2,3] and [2,5] in the set of real numbers. Participants explore whether these two sets have the same cardinality and the implications of their infinite nature.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the intervals [2,3] and [2,5] share the same cardinality, suggesting that a bijection is necessary for establishing equality.
  • Another participant provides a hint by referencing a known bijection between the intervals [0,1] and [0,2], prompting others to find a similar mapping for the given sets.
  • A participant proposes a mapping of the form (2^x) - x but expresses difficulty in creating a bijection back to the first set.
  • Another participant suggests that an inverse map could be used and mentions that a linear mapping of the form f(x)=ax+b could work.
  • A participant identifies the specific mapping y = 3x - 4 as a valid bijection between the two intervals.
  • One participant reiterates the infinite nature of both sets and questions if they share the cardinality ℂ, while noting that other infinite sets like integers and rationals do not have the same cardinality.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that both intervals are infinite and explore the concept of cardinality, but there is no consensus on whether they share the same cardinality or how to definitively establish a bijection.

Contextual Notes

Participants express uncertainty regarding the methods for establishing a bijection and the implications of different types of infinity, particularly in relation to cardinality.

FelixHelix
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Hi - I've got the following question but can't find any concrete information in my books on how to answer it and I'm slightly confused:

{x ε R : 2≤x≤3 } and {x ε R : 2≤x≤5 } Do they have the same cardinality?

My understanding of this is if you can find a mapping that satisifies a bijection then yes they do - but because the second set starts at 2 and not 4 I can't create this map and hence the second set will always be bigger. However they are both infinite so so do they share the cardinality ℂ?

Any ideas?

F
 
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Hint: [0,1] and [0,2] have the same cardinality because the map

f:[0,1]\rightarrow [0,2]:x\rightarrow 2x

is a bijection.

Can you find a bijection between your two sets??
 
Thanks. The only map I can see is (2^x) - x. I can't get from the second set back to the first. what is the preferred method to find this?
 
FelixHelix said:
Thanks. The only map I can see is (2^x) - x. I can't get from the second set back to the first. what is the preferred method to find this?

That's good too, but not what I had in mind. If you want to get from the second set to the first: just find the inverse map.

Note that in this case, you can always find a map of the form f(x)=ax+b for certain a and b.
 
Ahh, I see. So y = 3x - 4 works!
 
FelixHelix said:
Ahh, I see. So y = 3x - 4 works!

Indeed!
 
FelixHelix said:
However they are both infinite so so do they share the cardinality ℂ?

Keep in mind that the integers and rational are both infinite also, but their cardinality is not c.
 

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