Do the time and normal ordering operators commute?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between the time ordering operator ##\mathcal{T}## and the normal ordering operator ##\hat{N}## in quantum field theory. Participants explore whether these operators commute and the implications of their ordering in various contexts, including specific examples from quantum mechanics and quantum field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question whether the commutation relation $$[ \mathcal{T},\hat{N}] =0$$ holds, noting that the behavior of these operators depends on the order of application and the specific context.
  • One participant explains that time ordering and normal ordering are not linear operators and that their application results in different outcomes depending on the chronological order of the operators involved.
  • Another participant suggests that applying normal ordering followed by time ordering may not yield the same result as applying time ordering alone, and vice versa, raising questions about the correctness of the expressions $$\mathcal{T}\hat{N}= \mathcal{T}$$ and $$\hat{N}\mathcal{T}= \hat{N}$$.
  • A later reply indicates that the expectation value of a time-ordered product may differ depending on whether the time ordering is applied inside or outside of the expectation value, suggesting that the two notations may not be equivalent.
  • One participant references a paper to support their point about notation and the treatment of operators defined at different spacetime points, emphasizing that normal ordering is not typically applied to such operators.
  • Another participant raises a question about the implications of two expressions being equal after time ordering, asking whether this implies the equality of the functions involved.
  • One participant asserts that for a specific product of operators, normal ordering and time ordering do not commute, reinforcing the complexity of the relationship between these operators.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the commutation of the time ordering and normal ordering operators, with no consensus reached on the implications of their ordering or the correctness of specific expressions. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the broader implications of these operators in quantum field theory.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that time in quantum theory is treated as a real parameter rather than an observable, which may influence the interpretation of the operators involved. The discussion also highlights the complexity of operator ordering in quantum field theory, particularly when dealing with operators defined at different spacetime points.

QFT1995
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Does the time ordering operator ##\mathcal{T}## commute with the normal ordering operator ##\hat{N}##? i.e. is $$[ \mathcal{T},\hat{N}] =0$$ correct?
 
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Be careful, as neither time-ordering nor normal-ordering are linear operators (in fact they don't satisfy the usual definition of an "operator" in quantum mechanics). When you time-order a set of time-dependent operators, it outputs the order of operators in ascending (right-to-left) chronological order, while when you normal-order a set of operators, you place them in some "canonical" ordering. So a given string of operators is always in the order of the last of either \mathcal{T} or \hat{N} which you applied to it.

Let's just look at a simple example. In the simple (Heisenberg picture) quantum harmonic oscillator, consider either
$$
\mathcal{T}\left\{ a(t) a^{\dagger}(t') \right\}
$$
or
$$
\hat{N}\left\{ a(t) a^{\dagger}(t') \right\}.
$$
If t < t', these orderings are identical so they commute, while if t > t' they result in differing orders and don't commute.
 
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Okay thank you. If I apply normal ordering followed by time ordering, is that identical to just applying time ordering? In the same manner, if I apply time ordering followed by normal ordering, it that identical to just normal ordering? i.e. are

$$\mathcal{T}\hat{N}= \mathcal{T}$$
and
$$\hat{N}\mathcal{T}= \hat{N}$$
correct?
 
Yes, that's right.
 
Okay thank you. Also is $$ \mathcal{T} \langle 0 |\bigg\{ \phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)\dots \bigg\}|0\rangle $$
the same as
$$ \langle 0 |\mathcal{T} \bigg\{ \phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)\dots \bigg\}|0\rangle $$
where ##\mathcal{T}## is now on the inside.
 
QFT1995 said:
Okay thank you. Also is $$ \mathcal{T} \langle 0 |\bigg\{ \phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)\dots \bigg\}|0\rangle $$
the same as
$$ \langle 0 |\mathcal{T} \bigg\{ \phi(x_1) \phi(x_2)\dots \bigg\}|0\rangle $$
where ##\mathcal{T}## is now on the inside.

I have never seen the former notation before, but I would say they are definitely different, since the object \langle 0 | (\mathrm{stuff})| 0 \rangle is a c-number rather than an operator, so the normal/time ordering operators leave it unchanged.
 
If you look on page 5 eq 4.2 of the paper http://www.sbfisica.org.br/~evjaspc/xviii/images/Nunez/Jan26/AdditionalMaterial/Coleman_paper/Coleman_paper.pdf (I have linked the paper here), the former notation is written.
 
QFT1995 said:
Does the time ordering operator ##\mathcal{T}## commute with the normal ordering operator ##\hat{N}##? i.e. is $$[ \mathcal{T},\hat{N}] =0$$ correct?
Since time in quantum theory (particularly also of course in QFT) is a real parameter it commutes with all operators.

Note that in relativistic QFT both time and position are not a priori observables but just real parameters. As in non-relativistic QM time is just a parameter introducing an ordering of causal effects (thus defining "future, present, and past" via the causal time arrow). In relativistic QFT position is just a label for the infinitely many degrees of freedom described by fields.

Concrete relativistic QFT models are built using the unitary representations of the Poincare group. The only type of QFT used for practical purposes (aka the Standard Model) realizes the Poincare group with local fields, being quantized as bosons or fermions such that the Hamiltonian is bounded from below (i.e., existence of a stable ground state is built in by construction). All observables are then defined as functions (or functionals) of fields.

A position operator can be constructed a posteriori only for massive particles or massless particles with spin ##s \leq 1/2##.

Time never becomes an observable, because otherwise the Hamiltonian would be its "canonical conjugate" implying an energy spectrum that is not bounded from below. This argument by Pauli (1930) holds in both non-relativistic QM and relativistic QFT.
 
QFT1995 said:
If you look on page 5 eq 4.2 of the paper http://www.sbfisica.org.br/~evjaspc/xviii/images/Nunez/Jan26/AdditionalMaterial/Coleman_paper/Coleman_paper.pdf (I have linked the paper here), the former notation is written.

I see. I believe this is just unusual notation, and you are meant to interpret the time-ordering symbol as acting inside the expectation values. Obviously, if you evaluated the expectation value before time-ordering, the time-ordering would not do anything! Notice that he does put T inside the expectation value in Eq 4.18.

As an aside, you'll notice that Coleman never normal-orders a string of operators which are defined at different spacetime points. The expectation values take the form
$$
\langle \mathcal{T} \left\{ \hat{N}[\mathcal{O}_1(t_1)] \hat{N}[\mathcal{O}_2(t_2)] \cdots \right\} \rangle
$$
That is, you normal-order some composite operators \mathcal{O}_i(t_i) defined at particular spacetime points, and then you order the resulting string of normal-ordered operators in time.
 
  • #10
king vitamin said:
As an aside, you'll notice that Coleman never normal-orders a string of operators which are defined at different spacetime points. The expectation values take the form


$$\langle \mathcal{T} \left\{ \hat{N}[\mathcal{O}_1(t_1)] \hat{N}[\mathcal{O}_2(t_2)] \cdots \right\} \rangle$$
Ah thank you. This is the point I was missing. One last question. If I have two expressions say $$ \mathcal{T} A(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)=\mathcal{T}B(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots),$$
does that mean ## A(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)=B(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)##? Here ##A## and ##B## are functions of the fields.
 
  • #11
Consider the product of operators ##a(t_1)a^{\dagger}(t_2)##. I think it's quite clear that normal ordering and time ordering in this case do not commute.
 
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  • #12
QFT1995 said:
Ah thank you. This is the point I was missing. One last question. If I have two expressions say $$ \mathcal{T} A(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)=\mathcal{T}B(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots),$$
does that mean ## A(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)=B(\phi(x_1),\phi(x_2)\dots)##? Here ##A## and ##B## are functions of the fields.

Have you tried playing with some simple expressions to check if this is a reasonable relation?
 

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