Does Busch's Theorem Offer a Simplified Proof of Gleason's Theorem?

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The discussion centers on the article "Quantum states and generalized observables: a simple proof of Gleason's theorem" by P. Busch, which is critiqued for misleadingly claiming to provide a simple proof of Gleason's theorem. Participants express confusion over the definition and significance of the set of effects, denoted as ##\mathcal E(\mathcal H)##, and its relationship to probability measures on projection operators. Questions arise regarding the nature of linear functionals, particularly what constitutes a "normal" functional and how it relates to state operators. The conversation also touches on the proof's assumptions and the complexity of understanding the implications of Busch's theorem in the context of quantum mechanics. Overall, the thread highlights the need for clearer definitions and explanations in quantum theory literature.
  • #51
bhobba said:
An effect, by definition, is a positive operator that belongs to a POVM. If E3 is an effect then another effect E (it may be zero) must exist such that E3 + E = I by this definition. Then of course by the fact they are mapped to probability ie since E3 + E is a two element POVM it has two outcomes ie its a two element event space, then f(E3) + f(E) = 1, again from the Kolmogerov axioms, or, if you want to use measure theory language, its a measure space of total measure 1 - which of course is exactly what the Kolmogorov axioms are. Similarly f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E) =1. Equating the two you end up with f(E1) + f(E2) = f(E3) by cancelling f(E).
I don't see why the E in f(E3) + f(E) = 1 should be the same as the E in f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E) =1. Also, to get that second equality, you must have used f(E1+E2)=f(E1)+f(E2), which is fine if E1 and E2 are part of the same POVM and therefore correspond to mutually exclusive outcomes, but what if they're not?

bhobba said:
Regarding LaTeX - LaTeX is truth, but I find it far to time consuming and cumbersome so try to avoid it.
It's up to you, but it's really very easy. It takes a little bit of time the first and second time, but then it doesn't slow you down, except when you're using it to say things that you otherwise wouldn't. I think it would take you less time to learn these LaTeX codes than it did to write that last post above.
Code:
x^y
x^{yz}
E_1
E_{12}
\sin\theta
\cos{3x}
\sum_{k=1}^\infty x_k
\sqrt{1-v^2}
\frac{u+v}{1+uv}
\int_a^b f(x) dx
\mathbb R
\mathbb C
$$\begin{align}
&x^y\\
&x^{y+z}\\
&E_1\\
&E_{12}\\
&\sin\theta\\
&\cos{3x}\\
&\sum_{k=1}^\infty x_k\\
&\sqrt{1-v^2}\\
&\frac{u+v}{1+uv}\\
&\int_a^b f(x) dx\\
&\mathbb R\\
&\mathbb C\\
&\end{align}$$ We have a FAQ post on LaTeX if you decide to give it a try. You you can type something into a reply and just preview it if you want practice. https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3977517&postcount=3
 
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  • #52
Fredrik said:
I don't see why the E in f(E3) + f(E) = 1 should be the same as the E in f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E) =1.

We assume E1 + E2 = E3 and all three are effects. Since E3 is an effect by definition it must be part of a POVM ie some ∑Ui = 1, Ui positive operators. WOLG (without loss of generality) we can assume E3 = U1 so E3 + ∑Ui = 1 where the Ui are summed from 2. We let E = ∑Ui so E3 + E = 1. E is obviously also an effect since E3 + E is a POVM. Now since E3 = E1 + E2 we have E1 + E2 + E = 1.

Fredrik said:
Also, to get that second equality, you must have used f(E1+E2)=f(E1)+f(E2), which is fine if E1 and E2 are part of the same POVM and therefore correspond to mutually exclusive outcomes, but what if they're not?

In my basic assumption I have assumed the probability of outcome i depends only on the Ei its mapped to, in particular I have assumed it does not depend on what POVM it is part of ie this is the assumption of non-contextuality which is the real key to Gleason in either variant. This means f(E), which I have defined as the probability of E, is the same whether E is part of the POVM E1 + E2 + E = 1 or E is part of the E3 + E = 1 POVM.

Now since the E1 + E2 + E POVM has three outcomes and one of those outcomes must occur, f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E3) = 1 and similarly for the POVM E3 + E we have f(E3) + f(E) = 1. Equating and cancelling f(E) we have f(E1) + f(E2) = f(E3).

Fredrik said:
It's up to you, but it's really very easy.

Must get around to it when I get a bit of time.

Have few things to do today so will leave it to a bit later to look at your other issues in the main thread.

Thanks
Bill
 
  • #53
To Fredrik,

Remember that Busch's theorem needs no choice of topology on Effects to be true. Only sigma additivity.
 
  • #54
naima said:
Remember that Busch's theorem needs no choice of topology on Effects to be true. Only sigma additivity.
When we're dealing with classical probability measures, the σ-addititivity condition looks like this: ##\mu\big(\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty E_i\big)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty\mu(E_i)##. Here ##(E_i)_{i=1}^\infty## is a pairwise disjoint sequence of sets. When we're dealing with probability measures on the set of effects, the σ-addititivity condition looks like this: ##\mu\big(\sum_{i=1}^\infty E_i\big)=\sum_{i=1}^\infty\mu(E_i)##. The sum on the left is defined as the limit of the sequence of partial sums, and the limit is defined using a topology.

I don't think this is a big issue, since ##\mathcal E(\mathcal H)## is a subset of ##\mathcal B(\mathcal H)##, which has several useful topologies. The word "several" in that sentence is perhaps something to be concerned about. I haven't really thought that through.
 
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