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I don't see why the E in f(E3) + f(E) = 1 should be the same as the E in f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E) =1. Also, to get that second equality, you must have used f(E1+E2)=f(E1)+f(E2), which is fine if E1 and E2 are part of the same POVM and therefore correspond to mutually exclusive outcomes, but what if they're not?bhobba said:An effect, by definition, is a positive operator that belongs to a POVM. If E3 is an effect then another effect E (it may be zero) must exist such that E3 + E = I by this definition. Then of course by the fact they are mapped to probability ie since E3 + E is a two element POVM it has two outcomes ie its a two element event space, then f(E3) + f(E) = 1, again from the Kolmogerov axioms, or, if you want to use measure theory language, its a measure space of total measure 1 - which of course is exactly what the Kolmogorov axioms are. Similarly f(E1) + f(E2) + f(E) =1. Equating the two you end up with f(E1) + f(E2) = f(E3) by cancelling f(E).
It's up to you, but it's really very easy. It takes a little bit of time the first and second time, but then it doesn't slow you down, except when you're using it to say things that you otherwise wouldn't. I think it would take you less time to learn these LaTeX codes than it did to write that last post above.bhobba said:Regarding LaTeX - LaTeX is truth, but I find it far to time consuming and cumbersome so try to avoid it.
Code:
x^y
x^{yz}
E_1
E_{12}
\sin\theta
\cos{3x}
\sum_{k=1}^\infty x_k
\sqrt{1-v^2}
\frac{u+v}{1+uv}
\int_a^b f(x) dx
\mathbb R
\mathbb C
&x^y\\
&x^{y+z}\\
&E_1\\
&E_{12}\\
&\sin\theta\\
&\cos{3x}\\
&\sum_{k=1}^\infty x_k\\
&\sqrt{1-v^2}\\
&\frac{u+v}{1+uv}\\
&\int_a^b f(x) dx\\
&\mathbb R\\
&\mathbb C\\
&\end{align}$$ We have a FAQ post on LaTeX if you decide to give it a try. You you can type something into a reply and just preview it if you want practice. https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3977517&postcount=3