jimmycricket
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What is the limit of e^{-ix} as x tends to infinity?
The discussion centers around the limit of the expression e^{-ix} as x approaches infinity. Participants explore the mathematical implications of this limit, its representation in terms of trigonometric functions, and its relevance to quantum mechanics, particularly in the context of square well potentials.
Participants express differing views on whether the limit of e^{-ix} exists, with some asserting it does not exist while others remain uncertain. The discussion also includes varying interpretations of the implications for quantum mechanics, indicating a lack of consensus on those points.
Participants reference the relationship between the limit and trigonometric functions, as well as the implications for wave functions in quantum mechanics, but do not resolve the mathematical or physical claims presented.
What does ##e^{-ix}## represent? IOW, for a given x value, what does ##e^{-ix}## evaluate to?jimmycricket said:What is the limit of e^{-ix} as x tends to infinity?
jimmycricket said:cos(x) - isin(x)
jimmycricket said:Well this is exactly my problem, I don't know. Perhaps I should have mentioned that I have considered the limit in terms of cos and sin and I'm not just asking you out of laziness. I would be inclined to say the limit does not exist. The reason I need to know is I am answering a question on square well potentials where solving schrodingers equation yields \psi(x)=Ae^{ikx} +Be^{-ikx} outside of the well which in the region to the leftof the well simplifies to Ae^{ikx} and I was wondering if this is because the wave function equals zero as x tends to minus infinity which implies B=0. I don't know if this is now the right place to ask this but if anyone can help that would be great.
jimmycricket said:Well this is exactly my problem, I don't know. Perhaps I should have mentioned that I have considered the limit in terms of cos and sin and I'm not just asking you out of laziness. I would be inclined to say the limit does not exist. The reason I need to know is I am answering a question on square well potentials where solving schrodingers equation yields \psi(x)=Ae^{ikx} +Be^{-ikx} outside of the well which in the region to the leftof the well simplifies to Ae^{ikx} and I was wondering if this is because the wave function equals zero as x tends to minus infinity which implies B=0. I don't know if this is now the right place to ask this but if anyone can help that would be great.
Mark44 said:What does ##e^{-ix}## represent? IOW, for a given x value, what does ##e^{-ix}## evaluate to?
No, I was looking for a more specific answer, which @mathman gave you in post #6. In my question I specified "for a specific x value," so your response should have taken that into account.jimmycricket said:cos(x) - isin(x)