Does E(X / Y) = E(X) * E(1 / Y) ?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between the expected value of a ratio of independent random variables, specifically whether E(X / Y) equals E(X) * E(1 / Y). The scope includes theoretical exploration of probability and expectations in the context of independent stochastic variables.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if E(X / Y) = E(X) * E(1 / Y) holds under the assumption of independence between X and Y.
  • Another participant notes that E(XY) = E(X)E(Y) holds if X and Y are independent and suggests proving that independence extends to X and 1/Y.
  • A participant expresses uncertainty about how to prove the independence of X and 1/Y.
  • A reference to a theorem from a probability theory book is provided, stating that certain transformations of independent random variables remain independent, which may apply to the case of Y mapped to 1/Y.
  • One participant offers to replicate the proof of the theorem mentioned, emphasizing the need to verify the conditions of independence.
  • Another participant raises a caveat regarding the existence of E(1/Y), suggesting that there may be cases where it does not exist.
  • A participant expresses appreciation for the proof provided, indicating it is helpful for their understanding.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the independence of X and 1/Y, and the existence of E(1/Y) is also questioned. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the main question posed.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions about independence and the conditions under which the theorem applies. The existence of E(1/Y) is also noted as a potential issue that could affect the validity of the relationship being discussed.

DLS
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If x and y are independent, does the following relation hold: E(X / Y) =
E(X) * E(1 / Y) ?
:rolleyes:
 
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I'll assume that E is the expectation value and X, Y are stochastic variables.
Certainly, E(X Y) = E(X) E(Y) if (and only if) X and Y are independent (Meester, A Natural Introduction to Probability Theory). So you would be done if you could prove X, Y independent => X, 1/Y independent. Can you do that?
 
Thanks. I don't really know how to prove that for the moment. Working on it...
 
I did find this result in the book cited before:
(Theorem 5.6.12) Let X1, ..., Xn be independent continuous random variables and let g1, ..., gn be regular functions. Then g1(X1), ..., gn(Xn) are independent random variables, under a certain definition of regularity, which I think [tex]y \mapsto 1/y[/tex] satisfies.
If you want I can replicate the proof.
 
I typed it out anyway, it's attached as PDF.

I just put in the theorem and the proof. You should check for yourself that it indeed proves the theorem (e.g., that what is proved is equivalent to your definition independence of variables) and that what you have satisfies the conditions of the theorem (that is, [tex]g_1: X \mapsto X[/tex] and [tex]g_2: Y \mapsto 1/Y[/tex] are regular according to the given definition). Finally, you should then probably show that for independent variables the identity E(XY) = E(X)E(Y) from my first post holds, by writing out some definition.

Will that help you?
 

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Assuming E(1/Y) exists. I'd imagine you can find cases where it doesn't exist.
 
That is a nice proof. Thx. It really helps.
 

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